Questions
Varicella-zoster virus — Questions
Study questions about Varicella-zoster virus — exam-style, clinical-scenario and FAQ.
Mock Exam mode
Sit this set one question at a time. Multiple-choice questions mark themselves; written questions reveal a tickable mark scheme so you can score your own answer. You get a combined score at the end.
24 questions: 20 MCQ, 4 written.
- High priorityMCQ
VZV cerebral vasculopathy is suspected but cerebrospinal fluid PCR is negative. Which is the most useful next test?
- A. Repeat the same cerebrospinal fluid PCR
- B. Serum varicella immunoglobulin M
- C. Blood viral load by quantitative PCR
- D. Skin biopsy of the nearest dermatome
- E. Intrathecal anti-VZV immunoglobulin G
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Cerebrospinal fluid PCR is positive in only about 30% of cases of VZV vasculopathy, so a negative result does not exclude it. Demonstrating intrathecal synthesis of anti-VZV immunoglobulin G is the more sensitive approach, and the same principle applies to other rash-free neurological presentations of the virus.
- High priorityMCQ
Which immune mechanism is the principal defence controlling VZV?
- A. Circulating neutralising antibody alone
- B. Cell-mediated (T-cell) immunity
- C. Complement-mediated lysis of virions
- D. Mucosal immunoglobulin A secretion
- E. Innate interferon acting in isolation
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Because VZV spreads largely from cell to cell, cell-mediated immunity rather than antibody is the decisive control. Children who cannot make antibody are not unusually susceptible to severe chickenpox, whereas any failure of T-cell immunity predisposes to severe primary disease and to reactivation.
The decline of this arm with age or immunosuppression is what permits zoster.
- High priorityMCQ
Which is now the preferred vaccine for preventing herpes zoster, including in immunocompromised people?
- A. High-potency live-attenuated Oka vaccine
- B. The standard childhood varicella vaccine
- C. Recombinant glycoprotein E subunit vaccine
- D. Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin given twice
- E. An inactivated whole-virion zoster vaccine
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The recombinant glycoprotein E subunit vaccine with the AS01B adjuvant, given as two doses, has superseded the older live-attenuated zoster vaccine. It gives high, durable protection of around 90% that does not wane with age, and because it is non-live it is safe in the immunocompromised, the group at greatest need.
The childhood varicella vaccine prevents primary chickenpox, and immunoglobulin is for post-exposure prophylaxis, neither being active immunisation against zoster.
- High priorityMCQ
Which patient with varicella most clearly warrants antiviral treatment?
- A. A healthy 4-year-old with a typical mild rash
- B. A healthy adolescent past the rash peak
- C. A well child whose lesions have all crusted
- D. Any immunocompromised patient with varicella
- E. A healthy parent with a single crusting vesicle
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Antiviral treatment is indicated for complicated varicella and for any immunocompromised patient, in whom the disease can progress and disseminate. Aciclovir should be started as early as possible, given intravenously when the disease is severe.
Uncomplicated chickenpox in a healthy child is self-limiting and does not require antivirals.
- High priorityMCQ
Which statement about antiviral treatment of herpes zoster is correct?
- A. It reliably prevents postherpetic neuralgia
- B. It eases acute pain but not later neuralgia
- C. It is only useful once the rash has healed
- D. It works best when started after one week
- E. It removes the risk of zoster recurrence
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Antivirals shorten the acute illness and reduce acute pain when started early, within the first two to three days of the rash, but they do not prevent postherpetic neuralgia.
That established neuropathic pain is managed separately, with agents such as gabapentin or pregabalin, tricyclic antidepressants, and topical lidocaine.
- High priorityMCQ
Why does aciclovir-resistant VZV, seen mainly in advanced HIV, usually remain susceptible to foscarnet?
- A. Foscarnet inhibits the polymerase without viral activation
- B. Foscarnet must be activated by the viral thymidine kinase first
- C. Foscarnet blocks viral attachment to the cell
- D. Foscarnet prevents virus release from the skin
- E. Foscarnet restores the patient's cellular immunity
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Aciclovir must first be activated by the viral thymidine kinase, and resistance, which arises mainly during prolonged exposure in advanced HIV infection, is usually due to mutation of that kinase.
Foscarnet and cidofovir inhibit the viral DNA polymerase directly, without needing viral activation, so they retain activity against thymidine-kinase-deficient resistant strains.
High prioritySAQRegarding vaccination of HIV-positive patients, state whether each is true or false, correcting it if false: (a) influenza vaccination is contraindicated for pregnant patients with a CD4 count below 200 cells/uL; (b) HPV vaccination is recommended for all HIV-infected adult men and women, and for men who have sex with men up to 40 years, regardless of CD4 count, ART use or viral load; (c) a two-dose hepatitis A vaccine schedule may be followed in an HIV-infected patient with chronic liver disease; (d) a varicella (VZV) vaccine may be given as post-exposure prophylaxis to an HIV-infected patient with no prior immunity and a CD4 count of 150 cells/uL. [4]
Model answer
- (a) False. Inactivated influenza vaccine is recommended, not contraindicated, in pregnancy and in HIV at any CD4 count; it is non-live and safe, and both pregnancy and HIV raise the risk of severe influenza.
- (b) True. HPV vaccination is recommended for HIV-infected people regardless of CD4 count, ART use or viral load, including men who have sex with men up to about 40 years, because of their high HPV-associated cancer risk.
- (c) True. Hepatitis A vaccine is inactivated and safe in HIV; the standard two-dose schedule is appropriate, and chronic liver disease is itself an indication. Checking post-vaccination antibody is reasonable, as the response may be reduced.
- (d) False. The varicella vaccine is live and contraindicated at a CD4 count of 150 cells/uL. Give varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) for post-exposure prophylaxis instead.
High prioritySAQState the vaccine platform or type for each of the following: the Pfizer- BioNTech COVID-19 vaccine, Cervarix, the annual inactivated influenza vaccine, the mumps vaccine, and Shingrix. [5]
Model answer
- Pfizer-BioNTech COVID-19 vaccine (Comirnaty): mRNA vaccine in a lipid nanoparticle, encoding the pre-fusion spike protein.
- Cervarix: virus-like particle (HPV L1) vaccine, bivalent (types 16 and 18), with the AS04 adjuvant.
- Annual inactivated influenza vaccine: inactivated (killed) vaccine, usually split or subunit, grown in eggs or cell culture.
- Mumps vaccine: live attenuated vaccine (the Jeryl Lynn strain), given within MMR.
- Shingrix: recombinant protein subunit vaccine (varicella-zoster glycoprotein E) with the AS01B adjuvant.
High priorityExam-styleA 26-year-old woman requires vaccination before emigrating and needs hepatitis A, hepatitis B, typhoid, measles-mumps-rubella (MMR), varicella, polio and diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis (dTaP). Give your advice and a proposed vaccination schedule. [7]
Model answer
A complete answer first checks existing immunity, then separates live from inactivated vaccines and sequences the doses within the time available.
Assessment first. Take a vaccination history and, where useful, check serology (measles, rubella, varicella, hepatitis B). Do a pregnancy test: the live vaccines (MMR and varicella) are contraindicated in pregnancy, and pregnancy should be avoided for one month after them.
Live vaccines (give on the same day, or at least 4 weeks apart).
- MMR: one or two doses depending on documented immunity.
- Varicella: two doses 4 to 8 weeks apart if there is no history or evidence of immunity.
Inactivated vaccines (flexible timing, may be co-administered at separate sites).
- Hepatitis A: two doses at 0 and 6 to 12 months.
- Hepatitis B: three doses at 0, 1 and 6 months (an accelerated 0, 7, 21 days plus a 12-month dose if time is short). Combined hepatitis A and B is an option.
- Typhoid: single-dose Vi polysaccharide (inactivated).
- Polio: an inactivated polio (IPV) booster.
- dTaP: a single adult Tdap dose, reviewing tetanus and diphtheria status.
A workable sequence. Day 0: MMR, varicella (1), hepatitis A (1), hepatitis B (1), IPV, Tdap and typhoid together at separate sites. Then varicella (2) at 4 to 8 weeks; hepatitis B (2) at 1 month and (3) at 6 months; hepatitis A (2) at 6 to 12 months. Document everything for the destination country’s entry requirements.
High priorityExam-styleWhat are the complications of varicella-zoster virus infection, and which groups are at greatest risk?
Model answer
A complete answer spans the complications of primary varicella and of zoster, and notes that severity concentrates where cell-mediated immunity is immature or failing.
Skin and soft tissue
- Secondary bacterial infection, the commonest, from group A streptococci and Staphylococcus aureus, occasionally reaching necrotising fasciitis.
- Haemorrhagic varicella, around days 2 to 3 of the rash, with epistaxis, melaena or haematuria, mainly in the immunocompromised.
Pulmonary
- Varicella pneumonia, the leading cause of varicella death, affecting ~1 in 200 adults and far fewer children, typically 1 to 6 days after the rash; greatly increased in the immunocompromised and in pregnancy.
Neurological
- Cerebellar ataxia, benign and self-limiting, and the more serious encephalitis (~3 to 4 per 100,000), some 4 to 8 days after the rash.
- Guillain–Barré syndrome, and after zoster, postherpetic neuralgia.
Ocular
- Keratitis, uveitis, iritis and retinitis, mainly with zoster ophthalmicus and threatening sight; progressive outer retinal necrosis occurs in advanced HIV.
Other
- Reye syndrome if aspirin is given, and disseminated disease with visceral involvement in the immunocompromised.
Greatest severity falls on neonates, pregnant women, adults and the immunocompromised.
- MCQ
A patient has a one-sided facial palsy with painful vesicles in the ear canal and altered taste. Which best describes the lesion?
- A. Trigeminal zoster of the ophthalmic division
- B. Bell palsy unrelated to any virus
- C. Herpes simplex facial nerve neuritis
- D. VZV reactivation in the geniculate ganglion
- E. Bacterial otitis with a facial nerve palsy
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Ramsay Hunt syndrome is reactivation of VZV in the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve, producing an ipsilateral facial palsy with vesicles in the ear, sometimes with hearing loss and altered taste.
Ophthalmic-division zoster affects the eye and forehead rather than the ear and facial nerve, and a facial palsy without the characteristic vesicular rash and dermatomal distribution would not point to VZV.
- MCQ
A patient has herpes zoster of the ophthalmic division. Beyond the eye, which complication is notably increased?
- A. Chronic hepatitis with cirrhosis
- B. Cardiac conduction block
- C. Ischaemic stroke from VZV vasculopathy
- D. Membranous glomerulonephritis
- E. Sensorimotor peripheral polyneuropathy
Show answer
Correct answer: C
VZV cerebral vasculopathy, an inflammation of the cerebral arteries that follows reactivation, raises the risk of ischaemic and haemorrhagic stroke for months after an episode of zoster. The risk is particularly increased after herpes zoster ophthalmicus, rising around 4.5-fold.
- MCQ
A susceptible pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox. What is the recommended post-exposure measure?
- A. The live varicella vaccine administered immediately
- B. A short course of oral corticosteroids
- C. Reassurance alone, since no measure is needed here
- D. Immediate delivery to protect the fetus
- E. Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin within 96 hours
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin, given as soon as possible and ideally within 96 hours of exposure, is the mainstay for high-risk susceptible contacts: susceptible pregnant women, the immunocompromised, and neonates whose mothers develop varicella around delivery.
The live vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy, and immunoglobulin attenuates rather than always prevents disease.
- MCQ
Herpes zoster in an otherwise healthy young adult should most importantly prompt which action?
- A. Reassurance and discharge
- B. Lifelong aciclovir suppression
- C. Live zoster vaccination
- D. Testing for HIV
- E. A clotting screen
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Reactivation of varicella-zoster as shingles occurs at a relatively high CD4 count and is often the first clue to undiagnosed HIV in a young adult, so it should prompt HIV testing. As immunity falls further, zoster becomes multidermatomal or disseminated and can cause encephalitis, a retinal necrosis and a stroke-causing vasculopathy.
Reassurance alone misses an opportunity to diagnose HIV, lifelong suppression is not indicated for a single episode, a live vaccine is inappropriate when immunodeficiency is suspected, and a clotting screen is irrelevant.
- MCQ
How does the epidemiology of varicella differ between temperate and tropical regions?
- A. A disease of young children in both climates
- B. Temperate childhood disease, tropical adult susceptibility
- C. Tropical childhood disease, temperate adult susceptibility
- D. Equally distributed across all ages everywhere
- E. Confined to temperate climates, absent in the tropics
Show answer
Correct answer: B
In temperate regions chickenpox is a disease of early childhood, with most people infected before the age of ten. The virus transmits less efficiently in warmer climates, so a larger proportion of adolescents and adults remain susceptible in tropical regions, where they meet the more severe adult form of the disease.
The virus circulates worldwide, so it is neither absent from the tropics nor evenly distributed across all ages.
- MCQ
Over what period is a person with chickenpox infectious to others?
- A. Only during the days of active fever
- B. Only once every lesion has fully crusted over
- C. From about two days before rash to crusting
- D. For roughly six weeks following the rash
- E. Only during the prodrome before the rash onset
Show answer
Correct answer: C
A person with chickenpox is infectious from about two days before the rash appears until the last lesion has crusted over. Transmissibility before the rash is what makes the disease so difficult to contain, and a patient is no longer infectious once every lesion has dried.
- MCQ
Which adjuvant gives the recombinant zoster vaccine its high, durable efficacy?
- A. Aluminium hydroxide alone
- B. AS01B (monophosphoryl lipid A with QS-21)
- C. MF59 squalene emulsion
- D. CpG 1018 oligonucleotide
- E. AS04 (aluminium salt with monophosphoryl lipid A)
Show answer
Correct answer: B
AS01B, a liposomal combination of monophosphoryl lipid A and the saponin QS-21, drives the strong CD4 T cell response behind the recombinant zoster vaccine’s durable protection.
Alum alone is a weaker adjuvant; MF59 is used in influenza vaccines; CpG 1018 is in a hepatitis B vaccine; and AS04 is used in an HPV vaccine.
- MCQ
Which is a contraindication to the live-attenuated varicella vaccine?
- A. A remote history of mild chickenpox
- B. Close contact with an elderly relative
- C. Recent receipt of an inactivated vaccine
- D. A family history of postherpetic neuralgia
- E. Pregnancy or significant immunosuppression
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The varicella vaccine is a live-attenuated Oka-strain preparation, so it is contraindicated in pregnancy and in significant immunosuppression, and pregnancy should be avoided for a month after vaccination.
None of the other options is a contraindication:
- a past history of mild chickenpox
- contact with an elderly relative
- recent receipt of an inactivated vaccine
- a family history of postherpetic neuralgia
- MCQ
Which sight-threatening ocular VZV syndrome is characteristically seen in advanced HIV infection?
- A. Bacterial conjunctivitis with discharge
- B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
- C. Cytomegalovirus retinitis with haemorrhage
- D. Progressive outer retinal necrosis
- E. Anterior uveitis that resolves spontaneously
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Progressive outer retinal necrosis is an aggressive VZV retinitis seen in advanced HIV infection and a major threat to sight. Acute retinal necrosis is the corresponding VZV retinal disease in immunocompetent people.
Cytomegalovirus retinitis is a separate entity caused by a different virus, included here as a distractor rather than the answer.
- MCQ
Which statement best describes the prevention of herpes simplex and varicella-zoster virus disease in stem-cell transplant recipients?
- A. Aciclovir or valaciclovir prophylaxis in the early period prevents most HSV reactivation, a seronegative recipient exposed to chickenpox or shingles is given varicella-zoster immunoglobulin, and live varicella and zoster vaccines are avoided after transplant
- B. No prophylaxis is given for either virus after transplant, because HSV and VZV reactivation are both harmless in stem-cell recipients and resolve on their own once the transplanted graft has fully engrafted in the patient
- C. Live attenuated varicella vaccine is given routinely in the first month after transplant to prevent zoster, with aciclovir reserved only for the rare patient who develops disseminated herpes simplex despite that immunisation
- D. Valaciclovir prophylaxis is started only after the first episode of zoster has occurred, because giving it before that point rapidly selects for aciclovir resistance and provides no protection at all against herpes simplex reactivation
- E. Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin is given to all recipients regardless of serostatus or exposure, while herpes simplex is covered entirely by the cytomegalovirus prophylaxis and needs no specific aciclovir at any stage of the transplant course, before or after engraftment
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Herpes simplex
HSV reactivates earliest, within the first month. Aciclovir or valaciclovir prophylaxis during this period cuts HSV reactivation from around 70 per cent to under 5 per cent. (CMV prophylaxis with ganciclovir or valganciclovir also covers HSV, so separate aciclovir is not needed while that is running.)
Varicella-zoster
VZV reactivation (zoster) is late, often after day 100, and can disseminate. A seronegative recipient exposed to chickenpox or shingles is given varicella-zoster immunoglobulin within the recommended window, with aciclovir post-exposure prophylaxis as an adjunct. Live varicella and zoster vaccines are contraindicated after transplant and should be given to seronegative candidates before transplant; the non-live recombinant zoster vaccine is an option after transplant where available.
Why the distractors are wrong
B wrongly calls these infections harmless; C gives a live vaccine when it is contraindicated; D withholds prophylaxis until after disease and misstates the resistance picture (long-term prophylaxis actually keeps resistance low); and E misapplies immunoglobulin to everyone and assumes CMV prophylaxis always covers HSV.
- MCQ
Which statement best describes VZV latency?
- A. It occurs in circulating B lymphocytes
- B. It is maintained by continuous full lytic gene expression
- C. It is restricted to thoracic skin cells
- D. It is established in neurons, including enteric ganglia
- E. It never involves the cranial or autonomic nerve ganglia
Show answer
Correct answer: D
VZV establishes lifelong latency in neurons, and not only in the dorsal-root sensory ganglia but also in cranial-nerve, autonomic and enteric ganglia.
In the latent state the virus shuts down almost all gene expression, restricting itself largely to a non-coding latency-associated transcript that suppresses ORF61 and so blocks the cascade that would otherwise drive replication.
- MCQ
Why is infectious cell-free VZV released mainly from the superficial skin rather than from other infected tissues?
- A. Maturing keratinocytes lose the mannose-6-phosphate receptor
- B. Skin cells uniquely carry no viral glycoproteins
- C. The virus can replicate only in epidermal cells
- D. Antibody neutralises the virus in deeper tissues
- E. Surface keratinocytes overexpress the mannose-6-phosphate receptor
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Because the VZV glycoproteins are tagged with mannose-6-phosphate, newly enveloped virions are diverted into lysosomes and degraded in most tissues, so the virus spreads cell-to-cell rather than releasing free virus.
Maturing keratinocytes at the skin surface lose this receptor, allowing infectious cell-free virus into the vesicle fluid, the source of airborne transmission and of the virus that seeds the sensory nerves.
- MCQ
What is the usual incubation period of varicella?
- A. About 10 to 21 days
- B. About 1 to 3 days
- C. About 6 to 8 weeks
- D. About 24 to 48 hours
- E. About 3 to 6 months
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Varicella has an incubation period of 10 to 21 days, averaging about two weeks. The long interval reflects the time the virus takes to overcome the innate barrier in the skin before the generalised rash erupts in successive crops.
- MCQ
Which statement about VZV virology is correct?
- A. It has the largest of the human herpesvirus genomes
- B. It has the smallest human herpesvirus genome
- C. It relies on glycoprotein D for cell entry
- D. No licensed vaccine exists against it
- E. It is a double-stranded RNA virus
Show answer
Correct answer: B
VZV carries a linear double-stranded DNA genome of about 125 kilobases, the smallest of the human herpesviruses. Unusually for an alphaherpesvirus it has no glycoprotein D ortholog, relying instead on glycoprotein E for cell-to-cell spread, and it is the only human herpesvirus against which licensed vaccines exist.