Questions
Vaccination in Practice and Public Health — Questions
Study questions for Vaccination in Practice and Public Health.
Mock Exam mode
Sit this set one question at a time. Multiple-choice questions mark themselves; written questions reveal a tickable mark scheme so you can score your own answer. You get a combined score at the end.
23 questions: 15 MCQ, 8 written.
High prioritySAQName the contraindications to the Rotarix (rotavirus) vaccine. [4]
Model answer
- Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID): a live vaccine can cause prolonged or disseminated infection.
- Previous intussusception, or an uncorrected congenital gastrointestinal malformation predisposing to it.
- Severe hypersensitivity to a previous dose or to a vaccine component.
- Outside the age window: the course must not be started or completed late (no dose after 24 weeks of age), a timing restriction rather than a true contraindication but applied strictly.
High prioritySAQRegarding vaccination of HIV-positive patients, state whether each is true or false, correcting it if false: (a) influenza vaccination is contraindicated for pregnant patients with a CD4 count below 200 cells/uL; (b) HPV vaccination is recommended for all HIV-infected adult men and women, and for men who have sex with men up to 40 years, regardless of CD4 count, ART use or viral load; (c) a two-dose hepatitis A vaccine schedule may be followed in an HIV-infected patient with chronic liver disease; (d) a varicella (VZV) vaccine may be given as post-exposure prophylaxis to an HIV-infected patient with no prior immunity and a CD4 count of 150 cells/uL. [4]
Model answer
- (a) False. Inactivated influenza vaccine is recommended, not contraindicated, in pregnancy and in HIV at any CD4 count; it is non-live and safe, and both pregnancy and HIV raise the risk of severe influenza.
- (b) True. HPV vaccination is recommended for HIV-infected people regardless of CD4 count, ART use or viral load, including men who have sex with men up to about 40 years, because of their high HPV-associated cancer risk.
- (c) True. Hepatitis A vaccine is inactivated and safe in HIV; the standard two-dose schedule is appropriate, and chronic liver disease is itself an indication. Checking post-vaccination antibody is reasonable, as the response may be reduced.
- (d) False. The varicella vaccine is live and contraindicated at a CD4 count of 150 cells/uL. Give varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) for post-exposure prophylaxis instead.
High priorityExam-styleA 26-year-old woman requires vaccination before emigrating and needs hepatitis A, hepatitis B, typhoid, measles-mumps-rubella (MMR), varicella, polio and diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis (dTaP). Give your advice and a proposed vaccination schedule. [7]
Model answer
A complete answer first checks existing immunity, then separates live from inactivated vaccines and sequences the doses within the time available.
Assessment first. Take a vaccination history and, where useful, check serology (measles, rubella, varicella, hepatitis B). Do a pregnancy test: the live vaccines (MMR and varicella) are contraindicated in pregnancy, and pregnancy should be avoided for one month after them.
Live vaccines (give on the same day, or at least 4 weeks apart).
- MMR: one or two doses depending on documented immunity.
- Varicella: two doses 4 to 8 weeks apart if there is no history or evidence of immunity.
Inactivated vaccines (flexible timing, may be co-administered at separate sites).
- Hepatitis A: two doses at 0 and 6 to 12 months.
- Hepatitis B: three doses at 0, 1 and 6 months (an accelerated 0, 7, 21 days plus a 12-month dose if time is short). Combined hepatitis A and B is an option.
- Typhoid: single-dose Vi polysaccharide (inactivated).
- Polio: an inactivated polio (IPV) booster.
- dTaP: a single adult Tdap dose, reviewing tetanus and diphtheria status.
A workable sequence. Day 0: MMR, varicella (1), hepatitis A (1), hepatitis B (1), IPV, Tdap and typhoid together at separate sites. Then varicella (2) at 4 to 8 weeks; hepatitis B (2) at 1 month and (3) at 6 months; hepatitis A (2) at 6 to 12 months. Document everything for the destination country’s entry requirements.
High priorityExam-styleComment on maternal vaccination as an approach to preventing respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) disease in early infancy. [10]
Model answer
A complete answer gives the rationale, the vaccine and its evidence, the alternative passive approach, and the caveats.
Rationale. RSV causes its most severe disease in the first months of life, before an infant can mount a good vaccine response. Maternal IgG crosses the placenta, so immunising the mother in pregnancy delivers protective antibody to the newborn at exactly the vulnerable time.
The vaccine. A recombinant pre-fusion F protein vaccine given in pregnancy (around 28 to 36 weeks) raises maternal neutralising antibody that is transferred to the fetus.
Evidence. Maternal vaccination reduces severe RSV lower-respiratory-tract disease in the first months of life.
The alternative. A long-acting monoclonal antibody given to the infant (nirsevimab) provides the same protection passively and directly, and is an option where maternal vaccination is not used.
Caveats. The timing window matters for adequate antibody transfer, preterm infants may receive less, and safety in pregnancy and around gestational age has been a focus of evaluation.
High priorityExam-styleCritically comment on the current indications for annual influenza vaccination in South Africa. [10]
Model answer
A complete answer lists the priority groups, gives the rationale, and critiques the strategy.
Priority groups. Pregnant women; people living with HIV; those with chronic cardiac, pulmonary, renal or metabolic disease; the elderly; and healthcare workers. The very young are also at higher risk.
Rationale. The inactivated vaccine is safe in pregnancy and in HIV, and reduces severe disease and complications in exactly these higher-risk groups, where influenza adds to an already heavy respiratory and HIV/TB burden.
Critique. Influenza vaccine sits outside the routine EPI, so delivery and coverage are limited; the egg-based vaccine can mismatch the circulating strain; and annual reformulation and re-vaccination are needed. In a resource-constrained system a targeted risk-group strategy, rather than universal vaccination, is the appropriate use of limited doses, though cell-based and mRNA vaccines may improve the match in future.
High priorityExam-styleWrite a short scientific report, suitable for a vaccine-hesitant audience, supporting human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination of girls in South Africa. [20]
Model answer
A complete answer states the disease burden, explains how the vaccine works and its proven efficacy and safety, describes the local programme, and directly addresses common concerns.
The disease burden
Cervical cancer is a leading cause of cancer death among South African women, and the burden is amplified by HIV, which accelerates HPV-driven disease. HPV types 16 and 18 cause about 70% of cervical cancer, and almost all cervical cancer is caused by persistent high-risk HPV infection.
How the vaccine works and its efficacy
The vaccine is a non-infectious virus-like particle that raises type-specific neutralising antibody, preventing the persistent infection that leads to precancer and cancer. Vaccinated populations show large falls in high-risk HPV infection, genital warts and high-grade precancer, and early evidence of falling cervical cancer.
Safety
The HPV vaccine has an extensive safety record across tens of millions of doses. It does not cause infertility, does not affect future sexual behaviour, and the common complaints are transient injection-site reactions. Safety is continuously monitored and reported.
The South African programme
The public programme vaccinates girls through schools, at an age that protects them before exposure. Vaccinating before sexual debut gives the greatest benefit.
Addressing hesitancy
Vaccination is a means of preventing a cancer, not a statement about a child’s future behaviour; high uptake also protects the wider community, and transparent safety surveillance is what allows rare problems to be detected and acted on.
- MCQ
A polio outbreak caused by reversion of the live oral vaccine to a virulent, transmissible form is termed:
- A. Naturally occurring wild-type poliovirus
- B. Primary failure of the vaccine to take
- C. Vaccine-associated enhanced viral disease
- D. Original antigenic sin from prior exposure
- E. Circulating vaccine-derived poliovirus
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Circulating vaccine-derived poliovirus (cVDPV) arises when the live oral vaccine strain reverts toward virulence and spreads in under-immunised communities. It drives the move to newer oral vaccine strains and to inactivated vaccine.
The other terms describe naturally circulating virus or unrelated immunological phenomena.
- MCQ
Approximately what proportion of a population must be immune to interrupt measles transmission?
- A. ~50%
- B. ~70%
- C. ~85%
- D. ~95%
- E. ~99%
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Measles has a very high basic reproduction number (R0) of roughly 12 to 18, so the herd-immunity threshold, approximately 1 minus 1/R0, is about 95%. This is why measles is the first disease to return when coverage slips.
Lower figures suffice for less transmissible viruses but leave measles able to spread.
- MCQ
In the South African EPI, the hepatitis B birth dose is given to:
- A. Only infants of HBsAg-positive mothers
- B. All newborns, as a universal birth dose
- C. Only infants born before term gestation
- D. Only infants living in the highest-burden districts
- E. No infants, since it is not in the schedule
Show answer
Correct answer: A
South Africa gives the hepatitis B birth dose only to infants of HBsAg-positive mothers (a targeted policy), with routine hepatitis B otherwise delivered inside the hexavalent vaccine from 6 weeks. A universal birth dose, which the World Health Organization recommends, is not yet policy and is a recognised gap.
The other options misstate the current schedule.
- MCQ
Sustained vaccine and immunoglobulin pressure on hepatitis B virus can select for:
- A. A switch from a DNA to an RNA genome
- B. Surface-antigen (HBsAg) escape mutants
- C. Complete loss of the viral surface antigen
- D. Broad resistance to all antiviral drugs
- E. Permanent integration into the host cell genome
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Immune pressure can select hepatitis B surface-antigen (HBsAg) escape mutants whose altered surface antigen is less well recognised by vaccine-induced and therapeutic antibody.
The effect is limited where the surface antigen is structurally constrained; the other options do not occur.
- MCQ
The oral rotavirus vaccine course should not be given:
- A. Before 6 weeks of age
- B. After 24 weeks of age
- C. With any other live vaccine
- D. To breastfed infants
- E. Before the measles vaccine
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The oral rotavirus course must be completed early, with no dose given after 24 weeks of age, because the small risk of intussusception rises with age at first dose. South Africa uses a two-dose schedule at 6 and 14 weeks.
The other options are not contraindications to the vaccine.
- MCQ
The South African public-sector HPV vaccination programme currently provides:
- A. Both sexes, three doses, given in clinics
- B. Girls and boys, a two-dose schedule
- C. Girls only, a single dose, through schools
- D. Adults only, available on individual request
- E. No HPV vaccine in the public sector at all
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The public programme gives HPV vaccine to girls only, as a single dose, delivered through schools.
Boys are not covered in the public sector, and the private sector offers multi-dose schedules to both sexes.
- MCQ
Vaccinating the household contacts of an immunocompromised patient to protect that patient is called:
- A. Ring vaccination
- B. Herd immunity
- C. Catch-up vaccination
- D. Cocooning
- E. Post-exposure prophylaxis
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Cocooning is vaccinating those around a vulnerable person who cannot be effectively vaccinated, so the virus cannot reach them.
Ring vaccination targets the contacts around a case during an outbreak; herd immunity is the population-level version of the same idea.
- MCQ
What is the main purpose of a phase III vaccine trial?
- A. First-in-human safety and dose-finding studies
- B. Laboratory immunogenicity testing only
- C. Scaling up commercial manufacturing
- D. Long-term post-marketing surveillance
- E. Protective efficacy and rarer adverse events
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Phase III trials, in thousands to tens of thousands of participants, test protective efficacy and detect less common adverse events. Phase I addresses first-in-human safety and dose, phase II the immune response and schedule, and phase IV post-licensure surveillance.
Manufacturing scale-up is not the trial’s purpose.
- MCQ
What is the role of the National Advisory Group on Immunisation (NAGI) in South Africa?
- A. It manufactures the vaccines used in the EPI
- B. It reports adverse events to the medicines regulator
- C. It advises on national immunisation policy
- D. It physically administers vaccines in schools
- E. It certifies the country free of polio
Show answer
Correct answer: C
NAGI is South Africa’s national immunisation technical advisory group, providing the evidence-based advice that shapes the EPI schedule and policy.
Adverse events are handled by SAHPRA and the National Immunisation Safety Committee, and polio certification sits with separate committees.
- MCQ
Which is the only human disease eradicated by vaccination?
- A. Poliomyelitis
- B. Measles
- C. Smallpox
- D. Rubella
- E. Yellow fever
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Smallpox is the only eradicated human disease, declared in 1980. The animal morbillivirus rinderpest followed in 2011. Polio and measles are current eradication targets but are not yet eradicated.
The others remain in circulation.
- MCQ
Which network selects the strains for each season's influenza vaccine?
- A. The WHO global influenza surveillance system
- B. The global polio eradication initiative
- C. The national immunisation safety committee
- D. The expanded programme on immunisation
- E. The acute flaccid paralysis surveillance network
Show answer
Correct answer: A
The Global Influenza Surveillance and Response System (GISRS) monitors circulating influenza worldwide and recommends each season’s vaccine strains, twice a year, once per hemisphere.
The other bodies handle polio, vaccine safety, routine immunisation delivery and acute flaccid paralysis surveillance respectively.
- MCQ
Which statement correctly distinguishes eradication from elimination?
- A. Both eventually allow worldwide vaccination to cease
- B. Eradication is global and permanent; elimination is local
- C. Elimination is global while eradication is only local
- D. Eradication requires an animal reservoir; elimination does not
- E. The two terms are interchangeable in practice
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Eradication is permanent worldwide reduction to zero, after which vaccination can stop; elimination is zero cases in a defined area, sustained by continued vaccination because the virus persists elsewhere.
The other options reverse or conflate the two.
- MCQ
Which vaccine is actively recommended during pregnancy?
- A. Live attenuated (intranasal) influenza vaccine
- B. Inactivated influenza vaccine
- C. Measles, mumps and rubella (MMR)
- D. Varicella vaccine
- E. Live yellow fever vaccine
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Inactivated influenza vaccine is recommended in every pregnancy, protecting the mother and, through transferred antibody, the newborn.
The live vaccines (intranasal influenza, MMR, varicella and yellow fever) are all contraindicated in pregnancy.
- MCQ
Why does South Africa give the first measles-containing dose at 6 months rather than the licensed 9 months?
- A. To reduce the total number of clinic visits
- B. Because maternal antibody persists longer in this population
- C. Because the vaccine is more potent in infants
- D. To protect infants earlier in a high-HIV setting
- E. To align timing with the rotavirus schedule
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The early 6-month dose is a deliberate measles-control measure in a setting of intense transmission and high HIV prevalence, protecting infants sooner. It is off-label against the 9-month licensed minimum and does not replace the later dose.
The other options are not the rationale.
- MCQ
Why is the measles vaccine not given at birth?
- A. Maternal antibody neutralises the live vaccine
- B. The neonatal liver cannot yet metabolise the dose
- C. It is inactivated and needs an older child's immunity
- D. The cold chain repeatedly fails in newborn nurseries
- E. It interferes with the BCG vaccine given at birth
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Passively acquired maternal IgG neutralises the live measles vaccine in early infancy, causing primary vaccine failure, so the first dose is delayed until maternal antibody has waned. South Africa gives it at 6 months as a measles-control compromise.
The vaccine is live rather than inactivated, and the other options are not the reason.
SAQList the viral vaccines included in the South African EPI childhood schedule. [5]
Model answer
- Oral poliovirus (bivalent OPV) at birth, and inactivated poliovirus (IPV) within the hexavalent vaccine.
- Hepatitis B: within the hexavalent vaccine from 6 weeks, plus a birth dose for infants of HBsAg-positive mothers.
- Rotavirus: at 6 and 14 weeks.
- Measles-rubella (MR): at 6 and 12 months.
- HPV: girls, single dose, from around 9 years.
(The hexavalent vaccine carries the polio and hepatitis B components alongside the bacterial diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis and Hib antigens.)
SAQWhich live vaccines are withheld in a child with symptomatic HIV or AIDS, and why? [3]
Model answer
Withheld live vaccines: BCG, oral poliovirus vaccine, rotavirus vaccine and the measles-containing vaccine.
Why: in symptomatic HIV or AIDS the impaired cellular immunity cannot reliably control even an attenuated vaccine strain, risking disseminated vaccine-strain infection.
Children with asymptomatic HIV receive all EPI vaccines, and an additional early measles dose is given to HIV-infected infants because of their higher risk of severe measles.