Questions
Mechanisms of Viral Oncogenesis — Questions
Study questions for Mechanisms of Viral Oncogenesis.
Mock Exam mode
Sit this set one question at a time. Multiple-choice questions mark themselves; written questions reveal a tickable mark scheme so you can score your own answer. You get a combined score at the end.
32 questions: 27 MCQ, 5 written.
High prioritySAQBriefly discuss the oncogenesis of high-risk human papillomavirus, with specific mention of E6 and E7 (mechanism of action and the point of the cell cycle inhibited). [5]
Model answer
- E6 degrades p53: E6 recruits the cellular ubiquitin ligase E6AP to target p53 for proteasomal degradation, removing p53-dependent apoptosis and cell-cycle arrest.
- E7 inactivates Rb: E7 binds the retinoblastoma protein (Rb) and displaces it from the E2F transcription factors.
- E2F released: free E2F transcribes the S-phase genes, so the cell is driven into DNA synthesis.
- G1/S checkpoint overridden: the combined action pushes the cell across the G1/S restriction point without normal checkpoint control.
- Loss of both the Rb and p53 brakes together produces unchecked proliferation and the genomic instability that underlies transformation.
High priorityExam-styleDescribe the pathogenesis of human papillomavirus infection leading to malignant transformation. [6]
Model answer
A complete answer follows the sequence from infection through persistence and integration to the loss of both tumour-suppressor brakes, and notes that the virus is necessary but not sufficient.
Infection and productive cycle
The virus reaches the basal keratinocytes through a microabrasion in the epithelium and establishes its genome as an episome. In a productive infection the viral life cycle is tied to keratinocyte differentiation, and most such infections are transient and cleared by cell-mediated immunity.
Persistence and integration
Transformation is the exception and requires a persistent infection with a high-risk type, chiefly HPV16 and HPV18. Progression is associated with integration of the viral genome into the host chromosome, which disrupts the E2 gene. Because E2 represses the viral oncogenes, its loss lets E6 and E7 be expressed without restraint.
Deregulated oncoprotein expression
E6 recruits the ubiquitin ligase E6AP to degrade p53, removing the apoptosis and arrest response, while E7 inactivates the retinoblastoma protein (Rb), releasing E2F and forcing the cell into S phase. The combined loss of both tumour suppressors drives continuous proliferation, genomic instability, and activation of telomerase.
Progression to cancer
These changes accumulate over years as the epithelium passes through progressively higher-grade intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) to invasive carcinoma. Cofactors including persistence, immunosuppression (notably HIV co-infection) and smoking raise the risk, and only a small fraction of infected women develop cancer, which is why HPV is necessary but not sufficient.
- MCQ
Approximately what proportion of the global cancer burden is attributable to infectious agents?
- A. ~5%
- B. ~13%
- C. ~25%
- D. ~40%
- E. ~60%
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Infectious agents account for roughly 13% of cancers worldwide, about 2.2 million new cases a year. Oncogenic viruses make up the majority of that figure, with the bacterium Helicobacter pylori contributing most of the remainder.
The share is higher in low- and middle-income countries, where most virus-attributable cancers arise.
- MCQ
Compared with HPV16, HPV18 is more strongly associated with which lesion?
- A. Genital warts
- B. Squamous cell carcinoma
- C. Latent infection
- D. Cutaneous skin cancer
- E. Cervical adenocarcinoma
Show answer
Correct answer: E
HPV18 integrates more readily and is over-represented in cervical adenocarcinoma, whereas HPV16 is more replicative and dominates squamous cancers.
Genital warts are caused by low-risk types such as 6 and 11.
- MCQ
EBV-associated gastric carcinoma is characteristically marked by which feature?
- A. Frequent p53 mutation
- B. An ultraviolet mutational signature
- C. An aflatoxin mutational signature
- D. PD-L1 amplification
- E. A BCR-ABL fusion
Show answer
Correct answer: D
EBV-positive gastric cancer is a distinct subtype with amplification of the PD-L1 immune-checkpoint ligand (and JAK2), against a largely wild-type p53 background, marking the virus as a driver.
Ultraviolet and aflatoxin signatures and BCR-ABL belong to other cancers.
- MCQ
Endemic Burkitt lymphoma depends on Epstein-Barr virus together with which cofactor?
- A. Aflatoxin exposure
- B. Ultraviolet light
- C. Tobacco smoking
- D. Alcohol
- E. Holoendemic malaria
Show answer
Correct answer: E
In the equatorial African belt, holoendemic Plasmodium falciparum malaria drives B-cell proliferation and weakens EBV-specific immunity, raising the chance of the c-myc translocation that defines Burkitt lymphoma.
Aflatoxin, ultraviolet light, tobacco and alcohol are cofactors for other cancers.
- MCQ
Epstein-Barr virus LMP1 transforms B cells by mimicking which receptor?
- A. The B-cell receptor
- B. The interleukin-2 receptor
- C. CD40
- D. The epidermal growth factor receptor
- E. Notch
Show answer
Correct answer: C
LMP1 behaves as a constitutively active CD40 receptor, signalling without ligand to drive nuclear factor kappa B (NF-kB) and JAK-STAT survival pathways.
LMP2A mimics the B-cell receptor and EBNA2 mimics Notch.
- MCQ
How does integration of high-risk HPV typically promote progression to cancer?
- A. By inserting a viral oncogene into the host genome
- B. By disrupting E2 and releasing E6 and E7
- C. By activating an interleukin-2 autocrine loop
- D. By silencing the viral long terminal repeat
- E. By producing large amounts of infectious virus
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Integration commonly disrupts the viral E2 gene, and because E2 represses E6 and E7, its loss lets these oncoproteins be expressed without restraint.
HPV carries no captured host oncogene, and the cancer cells produce no virus.
- MCQ
How does the L1-based HPV vaccine prevent infection?
- A. By curing established infection
- B. By inducing neutralising antibodies
- C. By degrading E6 and E7
- D. By clearing integrated viral DNA
- E. By killing tumour cells directly
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The L1 capsid protein self-assembles into virus-like particles that elicit neutralising antibodies, preventing infection.
The vaccine is prophylactic, not therapeutic: it neither cures established infection, clears integrated DNA, nor kills tumour cells.
- MCQ
HPV E7 transforms cells chiefly by inactivating which protein?
- A. p53
- B. Epidermal growth factor receptor
- C. p16
- D. Retinoblastoma protein
- E. STING
Show answer
Correct answer: D
E7 binds and degrades the retinoblastoma protein (Rb), releasing the E2F transcription factors and forcing the cell into S phase.
p53 is the target of E6, not E7; the others are not the transforming target of E7.
- MCQ
Human T-lymphotropic virus type 1 causes which malignancy?
- A. Hepatocellular carcinoma
- B. Burkitt lymphoma
- C. Adult T-cell leukaemia
- D. Kaposi sarcoma
- E. Merkel cell carcinoma
Show answer
Correct answer: C
HTLV-1, the human tumour retrovirus, causes adult T-cell leukaemia/lymphoma after a latency of decades in a small fraction of carriers.
The other malignancies are driven by different viruses.
- MCQ
In a patient with HIV and Kaposi sarcoma, what is the central treatment step?
- A. Immediate antiretroviral therapy
- B. Splenectomy
- C. Rituximab monotherapy
- D. Aciclovir
- E. Withholding all therapy
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Restoring immunity is decisive: antiretroviral therapy is started immediately, whatever the CD4 count, and often causes regression, with liposomal doxorubicin reserved for advanced disease.
Splenectomy, rituximab monotherapy and aciclovir have no role, and withholding treatment worsens outcomes.
- MCQ
In MCPyV-positive Merkel cell carcinoma, the large T antigen is typically which of the following?
- A. Full-length and replication-competent
- B. Truncated but Rb-binding
- C. Absent from tumour cells
- D. Secreted from the cell
- E. Fused to the MYCL oncogene
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Integration selects a truncated large T that keeps the Rb-binding region but loses the replication function, so the virus drives proliferation precisely because it can no longer complete its life cycle.
The antigen is retained in the tumour cells, not absent, secreted, or fused to MYCL.
- MCQ
In what proportion of Kaposi sarcoma lesions is KSHV found?
- A. ~50%
- B. ~70%
- C. ~90%
- D. Essentially all
- E. Fewer than 10%
Show answer
Correct answer: D
KSHV is present in essentially every Kaposi sarcoma lesion and is its necessary cause. The lesions behave as a virus-driven angioproliferative process rather than a classic monoclonal tumour.
The lower proportions understate what is effectively a complete association.
- MCQ
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is most strongly associated with which virus?
- A. Human papillomavirus
- B. Kaposi sarcoma-associated herpesvirus
- C. Hepatitis B virus
- D. Human T-lymphotropic virus type 1
- E. Epstein-Barr virus
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is over 95% Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-positive, and it clusters in East and Southeast Asia against host genetic and dietary cofactors.
The other viruses drive different tumours and are not found in nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
- MCQ
That only a small fraction of infected people develop cancer, often decades later, shows that viral oncogenesis is which of the following?
- A. Monoclonal from the outset
- B. Multistep and cofactor-dependent
- C. Purely inherited
- D. A direct mechanism
- E. Unrelated to the virus
Show answer
Correct answer: B
A virus supplies only some of the steps to malignancy; host mutations and cofactors accumulated over time supply the rest, so the virus is necessary but not sufficient.
The long latency and low penetrance exclude a purely inherited, single-step, or virus-independent process.
- MCQ
The hepatitis B vaccine is historically significant as which of the following?
- A. The first cancer-preventing vaccine
- B. A therapeutic cancer vaccine
- C. A live attenuated vaccine
- D. An mRNA vaccine
- E. A treatment for hepatitis C
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Infant hepatitis B vaccination reduces hepatocellular carcinoma, the first demonstration that a vaccine can prevent a human cancer and strong proof of the causal link.
It is a prophylactic subunit vaccine, not therapeutic, live, mRNA, or active against hepatitis C.
- MCQ
What is the defining genetic lesion of Burkitt lymphoma?
- A. A c-myc translocation
- B. A BCR-ABL fusion
- C. A BCL2 translocation
- D. EGFR amplification
- E. A TERT-promoter mutation
Show answer
Correct answer: A
All Burkitt lymphomas carry a translocation, classically t(8;14), that places c-myc under an immunoglobulin promoter. EBV contributes by blocking the apoptosis that Myc overexpression would otherwise trigger.
BCR-ABL, BCL2 translocation, EGFR amplification and TERT-promoter mutations define other tumours.
- MCQ
What is the main route of vertical transmission of HTLV-1?
- A. Breastfeeding
- B. Transplacental spread
- C. Sexual contact
- D. Respiratory droplets
- E. Faecal-oral spread
Show answer
Correct answer: A
HTLV-1 spreads by cell-to-cell contact, and breastfeeding is the principal route of mother-to-child transmission; avoiding it reduces vertical spread.
Sexual and parenteral routes transmit between adults but are not the main vertical route.
- MCQ
What is the strongest evidence that hepatitis C causes liver cancer?
- A. A vaccine prevents new infection
- B. Interferon eradicates the virus
- C. The virus rarely integrates DNA
- D. Screening detects tumours early
- E. Antiviral cure lowers cancer risk
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Direct-acting antivirals cure over 98% of infections, and cure measurably lowers the subsequent risk of hepatocellular carcinoma, the cleanest demonstration that removing a virus prevents cancer.
There is no licensed hepatitis C vaccine, and the other options do not by themselves establish causation.
- MCQ
What proportion of cervical cancers are attributable to high-risk human papillomavirus?
- A. ~25%
- B. ~50%
- C. ~70%
- D. Over 90%
- E. Essentially all
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Essentially every cervical cancer carries high-risk HPV, making it the strongest virus-cancer association known.
The lower figures understate a relationship that is, for practical purposes, complete.
- MCQ
Which feature allows hepatitis B to cause liver cancer even without preceding cirrhosis?
- A. Viral DNA integration
- B. Chronic immune-mediated inflammation
- C. A persistently high viral load
- D. Co-infection with hepatitis D
- E. Aflatoxin exposure
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Integration drives insertional activation of cell-cycle and immortalisation genes and yields a truncated HBx protein, a direct route that can cause cancer without the cirrhotic background the inflammatory route needs.
Inflammation, high viral load, hepatitis D co-infection and aflatoxin all raise risk but act through the cirrhotic pathway.
- MCQ
Which feature is characteristic of a direct viral carcinogen?
- A. Works mainly through inflammation
- B. Carries no oncogene of its own
- C. Genome in every tumour cell
- D. Requires host immunosuppression
- E. Replicates without integrating
Show answer
Correct answer: C
In direct oncogenesis the viral genome is present in essentially all tumour cells, and a continuously expressed oncoprotein maintains transformation.
Chronic inflammation and a dependence on immunosuppression describe the indirect routes.
- MCQ
Which high-risk HPV protein drives the degradation of p53?
- A. E5
- B. E7
- C. E6
- D. L1
- E. E2
Show answer
Correct answer: C
E6 recruits the cellular ubiquitin ligase E6AP to degrade p53, removing the apoptosis and arrest response.
E7 targets the retinoblastoma protein, E5 hyperactivates the epidermal growth factor receptor, L1 is the capsid protein, and E2 represses E6 and E7.
- MCQ
Which HTLV-1 protein is invariably expressed in leukaemic cells and maintains the malignant clone?
- A. Tax
- B. Env
- C. HBZ
- D. Gag
- E. Rex
Show answer
Correct answer: C
HBZ, encoded on the antisense 3’ long terminal repeat, is expressed continuously and is the one viral protein always present in leukaemic cells.
Tax initiates transformation but is often silenced later; Env, Gag and Rex are structural or regulatory proteins, not clonal maintainers.
- MCQ
Which of these recognised human carcinogenic viruses encodes no oncogene of its own and causes cancer purely by indirect means?
- A. Human papillomavirus
- B. Epstein-Barr virus
- C. Human immunodeficiency virus
- D. Merkel cell polyomavirus
- E. Kaposi sarcoma-associated herpesvirus
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Human immunodeficiency virus carries no oncogene and transforms no cell itself. It raises cancer risk only indirectly, by depleting CD4 T cells and removing the immune surveillance that holds the other oncogenic viruses in check.
The other four are direct carcinogens that express viral oncoproteins within the tumour cell: HPV (E6 and E7), Epstein-Barr virus (LMP1 and EBNA), Merkel cell polyomavirus (truncated large T) and Kaposi sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (its pirated cell-cycle and survival genes).
- MCQ
Which oncovirus is the most clearly indirect, lacking both integration and an oncogene?
- A. Human papillomavirus
- B. Hepatitis B virus
- C. Epstein-Barr virus
- D. Hepatitis C virus
- E. Merkel cell polyomavirus
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Hepatitis C has no DNA stage, does not integrate, and encodes no oncogene, and its proteins are not found in all tumour cells; it causes liver cancer through decades of inflammation and cirrhosis.
HPV, HBV, EBV and Merkel cell polyomavirus all express oncoproteins or integrate.
- MCQ
Which virus accounts for the largest share of virus-attributable cancers worldwide?
- A. Hepatitis B virus
- B. Epstein-Barr virus
- C. Kaposi sarcoma-associated herpesvirus
- D. Human papillomavirus
- E. Hepatitis C virus
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Human papillomavirus causes roughly half of all virus-attributable cancers, driven above all by cervical cancer.
Hepatitis B is second, then hepatitis C and Epstein-Barr virus; KSHV and HTLV-1 together account for only a small share.
- MCQ
Why do HTLV-1-infected cells silence the 5' long terminal repeat?
- A. To increase virion production
- B. To evade Tax-specific immunity
- C. To integrate the provirus
- D. To activate HBZ transcription
- E. To enter the lytic cycle
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Tax is highly immunogenic, so cytotoxic T cells select against cells that express it. Silencing the 5’ long terminal repeat shuts Tax off and lets the infected cell persist, while HBZ on the 3’ repeat continues.
Silencing lowers rather than raises virion production and is unrelated to integration or a lytic cycle.
Exam-styleDescribe the molecular strategies common to the DNA and RNA tumour viruses by which they transform cells. [6]
Model answer
A complete answer groups the strategies rather than listing viruses, and ends with the point that a virus is necessary but not sufficient.
Inactivating the tumour-suppressor pathways
The direct DNA tumour viruses force a resting cell into S phase by disabling the two master tumour suppressors together: the retinoblastoma protein (Rb), which restrains cell-cycle entry, and p53, which triggers arrest or apoptosis in response to inappropriate proliferation. High-risk HPV does this with E7 against Rb and E6 against p53; the polyomavirus large T antigen engages both; adenovirus E1A and E1B define the paradigm.
Driving constitutive proliferative and survival signalling
Rather than degrade tumour suppressors, the herpesviral and retroviral oncoproteins mimic the cell’s own growth signals: Epstein-Barr virus LMP1 acts as a ligand-independent CD40 receptor driving survival signalling, KSHV deploys pirated cytokine and cell-cycle genes, and HTLV-1 Tax switches on host proliferation pathways.
Insertional mutagenesis
The retroviruses integrate a DNA copy of their genome into the host chromosome. Each integration is in effect a mutation, and a provirus landing beside a host proto-oncogene can activate it, producing a clonal tumour.
Indirect mechanisms
Where no oncoprotein is supplied, transformation proceeds through chronic inflammation and regeneration, which accumulate host mutations (hepatitis B and C), or through loss of immune surveillance over latently infected cells.
Necessary but not sufficient
In every case the virus supplies only some of the steps to malignancy; host mutations and cofactors are also required, which is why cancer is clonal, late, and develops in only a small fraction of those infected.
Exam-styleExplain why immunosuppressed patients (advanced HIV infection, transplantation) are at increased risk of virus-associated cancers, naming the viruses and the tumours involved. [6]
Model answer
A complete answer explains the surveillance mechanism, names the virus-tumour pairs, and notes the effect of restoring immunity.
Loss of surveillance. The latent oncogenic viruses persist for life in most adults but are normally held in check by T-cell surveillance, which removes infected and transformed cells. When that surveillance fails, in advanced HIV infection, after transplant immunosuppression, or in primary immunodeficiency, the latently infected cells proliferate unchecked and the associated cancers emerge.
The virus-tumour pairs. The characteristic pairings are Kaposi sarcoma-associated herpesvirus with Kaposi sarcoma and primary effusion lymphoma; Epstein-Barr virus with the B-cell lymphomas, including post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder and the central nervous system lymphoma of advanced HIV; and high-risk human papillomavirus with cervical and other anogenital cancers, which are more common and more aggressive in women living with HIV.
HIV’s role and the effect of treatment. HIV itself encodes no oncogene and transforms no cell; its entire oncogenic contribution is the depletion of CD4 T cells and the resulting loss of control over the other viruses. Restoring immune function with antiretroviral therapy reduces the incidence of these cancers, though it does not abolish it.
Exam-styleList the established human tumour viruses and, for each, give the principal cancer and classify the dominant mechanism as direct or indirect. [6]
Model answer
A complete answer names the seven recognised tumour viruses, pairs each with its principal cancer, and applies the direct or indirect distinction consistently.
Virus Principal cancer Mechanism Human papillomavirus (high-risk) Cervical and other anogenital, oropharyngeal Direct (E6, E7) Hepatitis B virus Hepatocellular carcinoma Mixed (integration, HBx, inflammation) Hepatitis C virus Hepatocellular carcinoma Indirect (chronic injury, cirrhosis) Epstein-Barr virus Burkitt and other lymphomas, nasopharyngeal carcinoma Direct (LMP1, EBNA) Kaposi sarcoma-associated herpesvirus Kaposi sarcoma, primary effusion lymphoma Direct (viral mimics) Human T-lymphotropic virus type 1 Adult T-cell leukaemia/lymphoma Direct (Tax, HBZ) Merkel cell polyomavirus Merkel cell carcinoma Direct (truncated large T) Human immunodeficiency virus is the eighth recognised carcinogen but is not a tumour virus: it encodes no oncogene and raises cancer risk only indirectly, through the immunosuppression that unmasks the viruses above. A direct carcinogen expresses an oncoprotein within the tumour cell, with the viral genome present in essentially all tumour cells; an indirect carcinogen promotes cancer through chronic inflammation or loss of immune surveillance.