Questions
Viral Haemorrhagic Fevers — Questions
Study questions for the Viral Haemorrhagic Fevers topic — exam-style, clinical-scenario and FAQ.
Mock Exam mode
Sit this set one question at a time. Multiple-choice questions mark themselves; written questions reveal a tickable mark scheme so you can score your own answer. You get a combined score at the end.
218 questions: 183 MCQ, 35 written.
High priorityClinical scenarioYou receive a sample from a patient who has just returned from eastern Democratic Republic of the Congo with a request to test for Ebola virus. How do you proceed? [6]
Model answer
a. Recognise and pause. Treat the request as a possible viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF); do not process the sample routinely, and check it against the current suspected-case definition (fever or a compatible symptom, travel to the outbreak area within 21 days and contact with a case, with malaria excluded).
b. Consult and notify. Telephone the National Institute for Communicable Diseases (NICD) hotline for a risk assessment before handling the sample further, alert the receiving reference laboratory, and notify the case as a Category 1 Notifiable Medical Condition and to the provincial coordinator.
c. Handle and package safely. Contain the sample under enhanced precautions; if VHF testing is agreed, submit one clotted and one EDTA tube with the case investigation form, in Category A packaging to UN2814, kept cold, by arranged courier to the reference laboratory.
d. Essential tests and isolation. Ensure the patient is isolated with barrier precautions, run only the clinically essential tests on site under precautions, and exclude malaria in parallel.
High prioritySAQDescribe how a suspected viral haemorrhagic fever specimen is transported to the National Institute for Communicable Diseases (NICD) biosafety level 4 laboratory. [5]
Model answer
- Prior consultation: the sample is sent only after discussion, through the hotline, with an NICD medical officer and the receiving laboratory.
- Specimen and form: one clotted-blood tube and one EDTA tube, with the completed case investigation form.
- Packaging: Category A triple packaging to UN2814 under International Air Transport Association (IATA) packing instruction 620, with biohazard marking.
- Temperature: kept cold with cold packs; whole blood is not frozen.
- Courier: moved by a dedicated arranged courier, not routine transport.
High prioritySAQDescribe the primary cellular tropism of Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever virus and its role in the pathogenesis of widespread organ failure. [4]
Model answer
Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever virus infects mononuclear phagocytes (monocytes and macrophages), dendritic cells, endothelial cells and hepatocytes.
Infection of macrophages and dendritic cells triggers release of pro-inflammatory cytokines which, with direct infection of endothelium, increases vascular permeability and activates coagulation, producing capillary leak and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Infection of hepatocytes causes hepatic necrosis. Together these drive the multi-organ failure of severe disease.
High prioritySAQDescribe the typical sequence of environmental and zoonotic events that precipitate a human outbreak of Rift Valley fever. [5]
Model answer
- Heavy rainfall: prolonged rains, often in an El Nino year, flood shallow depressions (dambos).
- Mosquito hatching: flooding hatches Aedes eggs already carrying the virus through transovarial transmission.
- Livestock amplification: the virus amplifies in sheep, cattle and goats, producing abortion storms that act as a sentinel.
- Secondary vectors: Culex and other mosquitoes amplify transmission further.
- Human spillover: people are infected by mosquito bites and by contact with infected animal tissues at slaughter, veterinary work or nursing sick animals.
High prioritySAQDistinguish Marburg virus from the ebolaviruses by their reservoir hosts and geographic endemism. [4]
Model answer
- Marburg reservoir (confirmed): the Egyptian rousette bat, a cave- and mine-dwelling fruit bat from which the virus has been repeatedly isolated.
- Ebolavirus reservoir (unconfirmed): fruit bats are strongly suspected on antibody and genome-fragment evidence, but infectious virus has never been isolated from a wild bat.
- Endemism: Marburg spillover tracks the range of the Egyptian rousette and cave or mine exposure, while ebolavirus spillover occurs in the forest zones of central and West Africa.
- Non-human primates and forest antelope are amplifying spillover hosts for both, not reservoirs.
High prioritySAQExplain the triple-packaging system for transporting a viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF) specimen. [6]
Model answer
Triple packaging protects handlers and the environment through three layers:
- Primary receptacle: the sealed, leak-proof specimen tube, wrapped in enough absorbent material to soak up the entire contents if it breaks.
- Secondary packaging: a durable, leak-proof, sealed container enclosing the primary receptacle.
- Outer packaging: a rigid shipping container of adequate strength, bearing the biohazard and Category A labelling.
For a suspected VHF specimen the system is classified Category A, UN2814, under International Air Transport Association (IATA) packing instruction 620, kept cold and moved only by prior arrangement.
High prioritySAQIdentify the primary tick vector of Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever and list three defining morphological characteristics of this genus. [4]
Model answer
The primary vector is the Hyalomma tick (notably Hyalomma marginatum and H. rufipes).
- Long mouthparts: a long hypostome and palps, longer than in most other hard ticks.
- Banded legs: pale and dark striping along the legs.
- Eyes on the scutum: distinct eyes at the margins of the shield, on a relatively large red-brown body.
High prioritySAQIdentify three immunologically privileged sites where filoviruses persist in survivors and outline the public-health implication. [3]
Model answer
- Semen (male genital tract): persistence for up to around two years.
- The eye: persistence causing uveitis.
- The central nervous system: rarely, a late relapse as meningoencephalitis.
Implication: persistence allows late transmission, particularly sexual transmission from male survivors, which can reseed an outbreak after it appears controlled, so survivor follow-up and safe-sex advice are part of the outbreak response.
High prioritySAQOutline the cellular tropism of filoviruses in early infection and the mechanism by which they inhibit the type I interferon response. [4]
Model answer
Tropism: filoviruses first infect monocytes, macrophages and dendritic cells, then spread to a broad range of tissues including endothelium, hepatocytes and the adrenal cortex.
Interferon inhibition: the VP35 protein masks viral RNA from the sensor RIG-I (retinoic acid inducible gene I) and blocks interferon induction; in the ebolaviruses VP24 additionally blocks interferon signalling through STAT1 (signal transducer and activator of transcription 1), while the marburgviruses use VP40 for the same effect. This lets the virus replicate to high titre before the immune response engages.
High prioritySAQOutline three key epidemiological drivers of Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever transmission in the South African context. [3]
Model answer
- Hyalomma tick exposure: the Hyalomma tick is both reservoir and vector, and farming and outdoor work in the drier interior bring people into contact with infected ticks.
- Livestock contact at slaughter: viraemic cattle, sheep and goats transmit through blood and tissues during slaughter, dehorning and castration, so abattoir and farm workers are at risk.
- Nosocomial and contact spread: a viraemic patient’s blood and body fluids transmit to carers and health workers, extending outbreaks beyond the animal exposure.
High priorityExam-styleDescribe the clinical presentation of Rift Valley fever infection in humans. [6]
Model answer
A complete answer covers the common self-limited illness and the severe minority forms.
Uncomplicated illness. After an incubation of about 2 to 6 days, most people develop an abrupt influenza-like illness with fever, headache, myalgia and photophobia, resolving within a week.
Ocular disease. One to three weeks later a minority develop retinitis and retinal vasculitis, which may leave permanent loss of central vision.
Neurological disease. A late meningoencephalitis can occur, with confusion, headache and focal signs.
Haemorrhagic disease. A small proportion develop jaundice, mucosal and gastrointestinal bleeding and hepatic necrosis, the form with the highest mortality.
High priorityExam-styleDescribe the typical clinical progression of filovirus disease. [6]
Model answer
A complete answer covers the biphasic course and notes the clinical similarity of Ebola and Marburg disease.
Incubation. After an incubation of about 2 to 21 days, illness begins abruptly.
Dry phase. Fever, severe malaise, headache and myalgia, before the prominent fluid losses appear.
Wet phase. Profuse vomiting and watery diarrhoea within days, causing the fluid and electrolyte loss that drives shock; a maculopapular rash and conjunctival injection are common.
Haemorrhage and outcome. Frank bleeding occurs in a minority and is usually late. Marburg and Ebola disease are clinically very similar and cannot be reliably distinguished at the bedside, so laboratory testing is required.
High priorityExam-styleDiscuss the current management of Marburg virus disease and the status of specific antivirals and vaccines. [6]
Model answer
A complete answer distinguishes supportive care, which is available, from specific countermeasures, which are not yet licensed.
Supportive care. The foundation of treatment is meticulous supportive care: aggressive fluid and electrolyte replacement, correction of coagulopathy, and organ support, which improves survival.
Specific therapeutics. There is no licensed antiviral or monoclonal antibody for Marburg virus, and the Zaire-specific Ebola antibodies do not apply. Candidate monoclonal antibodies and antivirals are investigational.
Vaccines. There is no licensed Marburg vaccine; candidate vaccines are in clinical trials. Prevention therefore rests on avoiding cave and mine exposure, infection control and outbreak response.
High priorityExam-styleDiscuss the laboratory management of samples from a patient with possible Ebola sent for routine diagnostic testing, that is, for tests other than Ebola testing. [6]
Model answer
A complete answer explains that essential tests are still done, but under precautions, and that Ebola confirmation is handled separately.
Do the essential tests. Life-saving and monitoring tests (full blood count, malaria smear, coagulation, urea and electrolytes, liver function, cross-match) are performed on site and never withheld while viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF) is being considered.
Under enhanced precautions. A small team of experienced staff works in a demarcated area; any aerosol-generating or open step is done inside a biosafety cabinet under enhanced protective equipment; closed automated systems are used where possible; and waste is handled as high-risk.
Inactivation and closed systems. Where possible, samples are chemically inactivated before analysis, and closed analysers reduce exposure.
Ebola confirmation is separate. The Ebola test itself is not done in the routine laboratory: a specimen is sent, after prior consultation and under Category A packaging, to the reference laboratory. The routine samples are traced and treated as potentially infectious, and destroyed only after consulting the reference laboratory.
High priorityExam-styleWrite short notes on Lassa fever virus. [10]
Model answer
A complete answer covers the virus itself, its reservoir and transmission, the clinical disease, how it is diagnosed, how it is treated, and how it is prevented.
Virus and reservoir
Lassa virus is an Old World arenavirus (Mammarenavirus lassaense), an enveloped, bisegmented, ambisense RNA virus. Its reservoir is the multimammate rat Mastomys natalensis, which is infected for life and sheds virus in its excreta.
Epidemiology and transmission
Endemic to rural West Africa (notably Nigeria, Sierra Leone, Liberia and Guinea), with an estimated ~100,000 to 300,000 infections a year. Humans are infected through contact with rodent excreta, by inhalation, ingestion or contamination of broken skin. Lassa also spreads person to person, with nosocomial outbreaks, and transmission peaks in the dry season.
Clinical features
After an incubation of about 6 to 21 days, ~80% of infections are mild or subclinical. Symptomatic disease begins insidiously with fever, sore throat, retrosternal pain and proteinuria; a minority progress to facial and neck swelling, mucosal bleeding, encephalopathy and shock. Sensorineural hearing loss affects a quarter to a third of survivors of clinical disease, and the illness is far more severe in pregnancy, with third-trimester fetal loss approaching 100%.
Diagnosis
RT-PCR is the mainstay, supported by antigen-capture and IgM/IgG antibody assays run in tandem. Malaria must always be excluded in parallel, and confirmatory work is done at biosafety level 4.
Management
Intensive supportive care with cautious fluid replacement (to avoid pulmonary oedema), plus intravenous ribavirin as the specific agent, most useful when started early.
Prevention
Rodent control and avoidance of rodent excreta; barrier nursing and viral haemorrhagic fever precautions to prevent nosocomial spread; oral ribavirin for high-risk exposures; and 21-day monitoring of contacts. There is no licensed vaccine, though a recombinant vesicular stomatitis virus candidate is in advanced trials. Lassa fever is a notifiable condition.
- MCQ
A 2026 outbreak in the Democratic Republic of the Congo and Uganda, declared a public health emergency of international concern, is caused by which ebolavirus for which no vaccine or specific therapeutic is licensed?
- A. Bundibugyo virus
- B. Zaire ebolavirus
- C. Sudan virus
- D. Reston virus
- E. Taï Forest virus
Show answer
Correct answer: A
The current emergency is caused by Bundibugyo virus, for which no vaccine or specific therapeutic is licensed; the licensed countermeasures protect only against Zaire ebolavirus.
Sudan virus also has no licensed vaccine but is not the cause here, Reston is non-pathogenic in humans, and Taï Forest has caused only a single case.
- MCQ
A contact of a filovirus case is monitored by twice-daily temperature for how long?
- A. 7 days
- B. 10 days
- C. 14 days
- D. 21 days
- E. 28 days
Show answer
Correct answer: D
A contact of a filovirus, Lassa or Lujo case has temperature recorded twice daily for 21 days from the last contact.
The window is 14 days for Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever, and Rift Valley fever needs no such observation; the other intervals are wrong.
- MCQ
A mouse infected with LCMV as a fetus or newborn typically becomes:
- A. Rapidly killed by an overwhelming acute infection
- B. Resistant to any future reinfection
- C. A lifelong virus carrier without disease
- D. Rendered sterile but otherwise healthy
- E. Fully protected by maternal antibody
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Infection of the fetal or newborn mouse, before the immune system matures, produces lifelong tolerant carriage with high virus levels but no disease.
This observation was central to the concept of immunological tolerance; the other outcomes do not describe it.
- MCQ
A pathogenic New World arenavirus most likely enters cells using which receptor?
- A. Alpha-dystroglycan
- B. Sialic acid
- C. The CD4 molecule
- D. Transferrin receptor 1
- E. Angiotensin-converting enzyme 2
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The pathogenic New World (clade B) arenaviruses enter cells through transferrin receptor 1, whereas the Old World viruses and clade C use alpha-dystroglycan.
Sialic acid, CD4 and angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 are receptors for other viruses, not the arenaviruses.
- MCQ
A patient has confirmed Sudan or Bundibugyo virus disease. What is the correct statement about specific therapy?
- A. Inmazeb is licensed and reliably effective against this particular species
- B. Ebanga is licensed and effective for this species
- C. No licensed treatment exists; MBP134 and remdesivir are under trial
- D. The Ervebo vaccine treats established infection
- E. Ribavirin is the treatment of choice
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The licensed antibodies Inmazeb and Ebanga target the Zaire glycoprotein, so for Sudan and Bundibugyo virus disease there is no licensed specific treatment, and broadly reactive agents such as the monoclonal MBP134 and the antiviral remdesivir are being evaluated in trials.
Ervebo prevents rather than treats infection, and ribavirin has no established role in filovirus disease.
- MCQ
A patient recovering from clinical Lassa fever is at particular risk of which long-term complication?
- A. Chronic active viral hepatitis
- B. Diabetes insipidus
- C. Aplastic anaemia
- D. Sensorineural hearing loss
- E. Peripheral neuropathy
Show answer
Correct answer: D
About a quarter to a third of survivors of clinical Lassa fever develop sensorineural hearing loss, often permanent, making Lassa a leading cause of acquired deafness in its endemic region.
The other complications listed are not characteristic sequelae of Lassa fever.
- MCQ
A specimen from a suspected viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF) case is classified for transport as:
- A. Category A, UN2814
- B. Category B, UN3373
- C. An exempt human specimen
- D. Non-hazardous material
- E. Category C
Show answer
Correct answer: A
A suspected VHF specimen is a Category A infectious substance, shipped under UN2814 with International Air Transport Association (IATA) packing instruction 620.
Routine diagnostic samples are the lower Category B (UN3373); the exempt, non-hazardous and Category C options do not apply.
- MCQ
A symptomatic contact of an Ebola case tests negative by blood RT-PCR on the first day of fever. What is the most appropriate next step?
- A. Repeat the RT-PCR after about 72 hours
- B. Exclude Ebola and discharge the contact
- C. Rely on IgG serology to exclude infection
- D. Perform viral culture in the routine laboratory
- E. Confirm the result with an antigen test alone
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Blood RT-PCR can be negative in the first days of symptoms because viraemia may be below the detection threshold, so a symptomatic contact who tests negative early should be retested after about 72 hours before Ebola is excluded.
Discharge, IgG serology, routine-laboratory culture and antigen testing alone are all inadequate for exclusion at that stage.
- MCQ
A traveller returns from central Africa with fever. Which is the most important immediate consideration?
- A. Empirical ribavirin
- B. Presumptive haemorrhagic fever isolation
- C. Reassurance and discharge
- D. Broad-spectrum antivirals
- E. Malaria until proven otherwise
Show answer
Correct answer: E
A febrile returning traveller is at least a thousand times more likely to have malaria than a viral haemorrhagic fever, so malaria must be excluded first while VHF risk is judged from the exposure history.
Isolation follows only once the history makes VHF plausible, and empirical ribavirin, antivirals or discharge are inappropriate as the immediate step.
- MCQ
About a tenth of patients treated with immune plasma for Argentine haemorrhagic fever develop:
- A. An immediate and severe transfusion-related anaphylactic reaction
- B. Chronic renal failure
- C. A late, self-limiting neurological syndrome with cerebellar signs
- D. Permanent bilateral blindness
- E. Secondary bacterial pneumonia
Show answer
Correct answer: C
About a tenth of patients given immune plasma for Argentine haemorrhagic fever develop a late, self-limiting neurological syndrome with fever and cerebellar signs, some weeks after apparent recovery.
The other complications are not features of this treatment.
- MCQ
Acute-phase diagnosis of a New World arenaviral haemorrhagic fever relies on:
- A. IgG antibody serology performed alone
- B. Routine blood culture on standard bacteriological media
- C. Clinical features alone, with no laboratory testing
- D. RT-PCR and antigen detection, under maximum containment
- E. A rapid over-the-counter urine antigen dipstick performed at home
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Acute diagnosis rests on reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction and antigen detection, performed under maximum containment, because the antibody response develops too slowly to help early.
Serology is for later or for surveillance, and dengue is an important early differential.
- MCQ
After Ebola virus is taken into the endosome by macropinocytosis, what must happen before the glycoprotein can bind its receptor NPC1?
- A. Furin cleavage at the plasma membrane
- B. Endosomal cathepsin cleavage exposes the receptor-binding site
- C. Neuraminidase removes sialic acid
- D. Low-pH activation of the fusion peptide directly at the plasma membrane
- E. Binding to a single specific surface receptor
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Inside the acidifying endosome, cathepsins B and L trim the glycoprotein, removing the glycan cap and mucin-like domain to expose the site that binds the intracellular receptor NPC1, which then triggers fusion.
Entry does not depend on surface furin cleavage, neuraminidase, plasma-membrane fusion, or a single specific surface receptor; attachment is promiscuous.
- MCQ
After endocytosis, Lassa virus switches to which receptor at low endosomal pH to trigger membrane fusion?
- A. LAMP1
- B. Neuropilin-2
- C. DC-SIGN
- D. CD36
- E. Integrin beta-3
Show answer
Correct answer: A
At the acidic pH of the endosome, Lassa virus hands off from alpha-dystroglycan to the lysosomal protein LAMP1, which triggers the GP2 change that fuses the membranes.
Neuropilin-2 and CD36 serve Lujo virus, while DC-SIGN and integrins are not the fusion-triggering switch here.
- MCQ
An early viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF) specimen negative on antigen, genome and antibody should be followed by:
- A. Immediate discharge of the patient
- B. A repeat malaria smear
- C. A convalescent antibody sample
- D. No further testing
- E. Empirical antibiotics
Show answer
Correct answer: C
An early negative must be backed by a convalescent antibody sample, because virus can still grow in culture days after antigen, genome and antibody are negative.
Discharge, no further testing, a malaria smear or antibiotics do not address an early false negative.
- MCQ
Appropriate post-exposure prophylaxis after high-risk unprotected contact with a confirmed Lassa case is:
- A. Oral ribavirin
- B. A single dose of the rVSV vaccine
- C. Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin
- D. Oseltamivir
- E. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Oral ribavirin can be given as post-exposure prophylaxis after a defined high-risk exposure to Lassa virus, and is converted to intravenous treatment if illness develops.
The rVSV vaccine is not licensed for this use, and the immunoglobulins and oseltamivir target other agents.
- MCQ
Approximately what proportion of human RVF infections progress to severe disease?
- A. About 1% to 2%
- B. The majority of cases
- C. Around 25%
- D. Around one half
- E. Essentially none
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Only about 1% to 2% of infections progress to severe disease; the great majority are a self-limiting febrile illness.
Severe disease is uncommon, but the scale of epizootics still yields many such cases.
- MCQ
Argentine haemorrhagic fever incidence has fallen substantially chiefly because of:
- A. Widespread ribavirin prophylaxis
- B. The Candid #1 vaccine
- C. Eradication of the rodent reservoir
- D. An inactivated Lassa vaccine
- E. Mosquito vector control
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The live-attenuated Junin vaccine Candid #1, in use since the late 1980s, has sharply reduced Argentine haemorrhagic fever.
Ribavirin and immune plasma are treatments rather than population-level control, the rodent reservoir has not been eliminated, and there is no inactivated Lassa vaccine nor a mosquito vector to target.
- MCQ
Beyond fluid loss, which organ injury contributes to the refractory shock of severe Ebola virus disease?
- A. Thyroid gland infiltration
- B. Pituitary haemorrhage causing central diabetes insipidus and visual loss
- C. Acute pancreatic necrosis
- D. Splenic rupture
- E. Adrenal cortical necrosis worsening blood-pressure control
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Necrosis of the adrenal cortex impairs the cortisol-dependent control of blood pressure, compounding the hypovolaemic and distributive shock of severe disease.
The thyroid, pituitary, pancreas and spleen are not the principal contributors to the shock.
- MCQ
CCHFV is best described as:
- A. A mosquito-borne haemorrhagic virus of the Americas
- B. The most widespread tick-borne virus worldwide
- C. A virus confined to sub-Saharan Africa
- D. An airborne virus of temperate Europe
- E. A rodent-borne virus of Southeast Asia
Show answer
Correct answer: B
CCHFV is the most widely distributed tick-borne virus, endemic across Africa, the Balkans, the Middle East, Central Asia and the Indian subcontinent, following the range of Hyalomma ticks.
It is an Old World, tick-borne virus, not mosquito-borne, rodent-borne or geographically confined.
- MCQ
Cleavage of the Lassa glycoprotein precursor into mature GP1 and GP2 is carried out by:
- A. Caspase-3
- B. Furin
- C. TMPRSS2
- D. A viral 3C-like protease
- E. SKI-1/S1P
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The cellular protease SKI-1/S1P cleaves the glycoprotein precursor into GP1 and GP2, a step essential for infectivity and a target of experimental antivirals.
Furin, TMPRSS2 and caspase-3 process other proteins, and arenaviruses encode no 3C-like protease.
- MCQ
Compared with Ebola virus disease, severe Lassa fever typically shows:
- A. Florid disseminated intravascular coagulation with bleeding
- B. A dominant cytokine storm
- C. Increased vascular permeability without prominent DIC
- D. Widespread direct endothelial necrosis
- E. Early, marked complement activation
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Severe Lassa fever is driven by increased vascular permeability and endothelial dysfunction, without the florid disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) or cytokine storm of Ebola.
Bleeding owes more to thrombocytopenia and impaired platelet function than to consumption of clotting factors.
- MCQ
Compared with Lassa fever, the South American arenaviral haemorrhagic fevers more prominently feature:
- A. Sensorineural deafness
- B. Chronic human carriage
- C. Absence of rash
- D. Mosquito-borne transmission
- E. Prominent tremor and ataxia
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The South American arenaviral haemorrhagic fevers feature prominent neurological signs, such as tremor and ataxia, more than Lassa fever does.
Deafness is the Lassa sequela, chronic human carriage does not occur, a rash is common, and arenaviruses are not mosquito-transmitted.
- MCQ
Compared with Lassa fever, the South American haemorrhagic fevers characteristically show:
- A. A more prominent neurological picture, with a normal or mildly raised AST
- B. Marked jaundice together with very high serum aminotransferase concentrations
- C. No haematological changes at all
- D. A vesicular rash like chickenpox
- E. Isolated renal failure without fever
Show answer
Correct answer: A
The South American haemorrhagic fevers carry a more prominent neurological picture than Lassa, with thrombocytopenia and leucopenia but a normal or only mildly raised aspartate aminotransferase.
Marked hepatitis, an absence of blood-count changes, a chickenpox-like rash and isolated renal failure are not their pattern.
- MCQ
Control of and recovery from Lassa fever depends chiefly on:
- A. Neutralising antibody
- B. Complement activation
- C. Natural killer cells acting alone
- D. A virus-specific T-cell response
- E. Passively acquired maternal antibody
Show answer
Correct answer: D
A virus-specific T-cell response, rather than antibody, controls Lassa fever; antibody appears late and neutralises weakly, and fatal cases show a defective, delayed T-cell response with rising viraemia.
The other mechanisms are not the decisive arm of control.
- MCQ
Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever virus belongs to which family?
- A. Filoviridae
- B. Arenaviridae
- C. Nairoviridae
- D. Flaviviridae
- E. Phenuiviridae
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever virus is a nairovirus, family Nairoviridae, within the order Bunyavirales, and is transmitted by Hyalomma ticks.
Rift Valley fever is a phenuivirus, while the filoviruses, arenaviruses and flaviviruses are the other VHF groups.
- MCQ
Current evidence on ribavirin for CCHF is best summarised as:
- A. Curative at any stage of illness
- B. Widely used but of contested benefit
- C. Contraindicated in all patients
- D. Proven effective in randomised trials
- E. Effective only after day ten of illness
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Ribavirin has been used for decades and may help when started early, but recent meta-analyses question its benefit and several investigators have called for randomised trials.
It is still given in many endemic settings, particularly when CCHF cannot be distinguished from other haemorrhagic fevers, so it is neither proven nor contraindicated.
- MCQ
Donor-derived LCMV infection in organ-transplant recipients is characterised by:
- A. A mild and self-limiting febrile illness
- B. Negligible risk, since all organ donors are screened
- C. Severe, frequently fatal multisystem disease
- D. An isolated transient skin rash
- E. A slow onset over several years
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Acquired from an infected donor, LCMV causes a severe and frequently fatal multisystem illness in the immunosuppressed recipient, with fever, hepatitis, encephalopathy and multiorgan failure within weeks; across five US clusters most of the 17 recipients died.
Donors cannot practically be screened for this rare infection, so it is recognised after the event.
- MCQ
Filovirus persistence enabling late sexual transmission occurs chiefly in which site?
- A. Semen
- B. The bloodstream
- C. Skeletal muscle
- D. Bile
- E. Sweat glands
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Filovirus can persist in immune-privileged sites such as the semen for up to around two years, allowing occasional sexual transmission that reseeds outbreaks.
The virus does not persist long term in the bloodstream, muscle, bile or sweat glands in this way.
- MCQ
For which filovirus is the natural reservoir firmly established?
- A. Zaire ebolavirus, in unidentified fruit bats
- B. Marburg virus, in Egyptian rousette bats
- C. Sudan ebolavirus, in field rodents
- D. Bundibugyo ebolavirus, in primates
- E. Ebola virus, in tick vectors
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Only for Marburg virus is the reservoir firmly established: the Egyptian rousette bat, from which the virus has been repeatedly isolated.
The ebolavirus reservoir is unconfirmed, since infectious virus has not been isolated from a wild bat, and filoviruses are not rodent- or tick-borne.
- MCQ
Genetically, RVFV across its geographic range is best described as:
- A. Highly variable, with many serotypes
- B. Prone to rapid antigenic shift
- C. Split into distinct vaccine-escape serotypes worldwide
- D. Highly conserved, essentially one antigenic type
- E. Continuously drifting like influenza
Show answer
Correct answer: D
RVFV shows only about 4% to 5% nucleotide diversity among strains since the 1970s and behaves as a single antigenic type, so one well-matched vaccine can protect broadly.
It does not undergo antigenic shift or drift into escape serotypes.
- MCQ
Guanarito virus causes Venezuelan haemorrhagic fever and is carried by:
- A. The Argentine drylands vesper mouse Calomys musculinus
- B. The rodent Calomys callosus
- C. The cane mouse Zygodontomys brevicauda
- D. The house mouse
- E. Ixodid ticks
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Guanarito virus, the cause of Venezuelan haemorrhagic fever, is carried by the cane mouse Zygodontomys brevicauda in the states of Portuguesa and Barinas.
Calomys species are the Argentine and Bolivian reservoirs; the house mouse and ticks are not involved.
- MCQ
How are Marburg virus and Ravn virus classified?
- A. As two separate genera within the family Filoviridae, order Mononegavirales
- B. As two species placed in different families
- C. As two viruses within one species, Orthomarburgvirus marburgense
- D. As two species of the genus Orthoebolavirus
- E. As identical strains of a single virus
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Marburg virus and Ravn virus are two distinct viruses within a single species, Orthomarburgvirus marburgense, in the genus Orthomarburgvirus, and they cause the same disease.
They are not separate genera or families, are not ebolaviruses, and are genetically distinct rather than identical strains.
- MCQ
How does Ebola virus produce both a surface glycoprotein and a secreted glycoprotein (sGP) from its single glycoprotein gene?
- A. Alternative splicing of the glycoprotein messenger RNA
- B. Two separate glycoprotein genes
- C. Ribosomal read-through of a stop codon
- D. Proteolytic cleavage of a single glycoprotein precursor by the receptor NPC1
- E. Cotranscriptional editing at a run of uridines shifts the reading frame
Show answer
Correct answer: E
At a run of seven uridines the polymerase stutters and inserts an extra nucleotide, shifting the reading frame so one gene yields both the structural spike GP1,2 and a secreted decoy glycoprotein, sGP. Marburg virus lacks this editing and makes no sGP.
The mechanism is cotranscriptional editing, not splicing, stop-codon read-through, a second gene, or cleavage by the receptor NPC1.
- MCQ
How does Marburg virus enter and gain access to the cytoplasm?
- A. Macropinocytosis, then cathepsin priming and binding to NPC1
- B. Direct fusion at the plasma membrane on contact
- C. Binding to one specific surface receptor, followed by caveolar uptake
- D. Sialic-acid binding with neuraminidase-mediated release
- E. Endocytosis through the transferrin receptor
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Marburg virus is taken up by macropinocytosis, after which endosomal cathepsins prime the glycoprotein to bind the intracellular receptor NPC1, the same receptor used by the ebolaviruses, triggering fusion.
It does not fuse at the plasma membrane, rely on a single specific surface receptor, use sialic acid, or enter through the transferrin receptor.
- MCQ
How does Marburg virus glycoprotein expression differ from that of the ebolaviruses?
- A. It uses RNA editing to make several glycoprotein forms
- B. It produces a large secreted decoy glycoprotein that absorbs antibody
- C. It carries two separate glycoprotein genes
- D. It lacks a surface glycoprotein entirely
- E. It uses a single reading frame and makes no secreted glycoprotein
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Marburg virus expresses its glycoprotein from a single reading frame and makes no secreted glycoprotein, unlike the ebolaviruses, which use cotranscriptional editing to produce both the surface spike and a secreted decoy (sGP).
It does not edit its glycoprotein gene, has a single such gene, and does carry a surface glycoprotein.
- MCQ
How does the CCHFV genome differ from that of most other bunyavirals?
- A. It is a positive-sense genome
- B. It is a single non-segmented molecule of RNA
- C. It uses an ambisense S segment
- D. Its L and M segments are unusually large
- E. It is composed of DNA
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The CCHFV L and M segments are markedly larger than in other bunyavirals, the oversized L protein carrying a cap-snatching endonuclease and an OTU deubiquitinase domain in addition to the polymerase.
The genome is negative-sense, tripartite RNA; an ambisense S segment is a phlebovirus feature, seen in Rift Valley fever virus, not CCHFV.
- MCQ
How does the CCHFV L polymerase prime viral messenger RNA synthesis?
- A. With a self-priming genomic hairpin
- B. Using a covalently linked protein primer
- C. By recruiting a host DNA primase
- D. Through poly-A slippage on the template
- E. By cap-snatching from host transcripts
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The L polymerase cleaves short capped fragments from host messenger RNAs and uses them to prime transcription (cap-snatching), a strategy shared across the bunyavirals and carried out entirely in the cytoplasm.
Protein-primed and self-priming mechanisms belong to other virus groups.
- MCQ
How does the Lassa virus nucleoprotein help the virus evade innate immunity?
- A. It cleaves surface MHC class I to hide infected cells from T cells
- B. Its exonuclease degrades double-stranded RNA, blunting interferon
- C. It binds and neutralises host antibody
- D. It blocks apoptosis to prolong cell survival
- E. It cleaves complement components in serum
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The Lassa nucleoprotein carries an exonuclease that digests the double-stranded RNA the cell would otherwise sense, suppressing type I interferon induction.
Arenaviruses do not evade immunity by cleaving MHC, neutralising antibody, blocking apoptosis or degrading complement in this way.
- MCQ
How is a suspected viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF) notified in South Africa?
- A. By a routine monthly return
- B. It is not a notifiable condition
- C. As a Category 1 Notifiable Medical Condition
- D. By written notice to the World Health Organization
- E. Only after the reference laboratory confirms the diagnosis
Show answer
Correct answer: C
A suspected VHF is notified as a Category 1 Notifiable Medical Condition through the Notifiable Medical Conditions application, alongside the hotline call, without waiting for laboratory confirmation.
It is not reported by a routine return or only after confirmation, and the World Health Organization is notified by the national department, not the clinician.
- MCQ
How is acute Marburg virus disease confirmed in the laboratory?
- A. Standard blood culture incubated on routine bacteriological media
- B. Serology alone at first presentation
- C. An antigen-based skin test
- D. RT-PCR for viral RNA, confirmed and handled at high containment
- E. Electron microscopy of a urine sample
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Acute disease is confirmed by RT-PCR for viral RNA in blood, with a reactive screen confirmed by a virus-specific assay, and all work performed under biosafety level 4 precautions.
Routine blood culture, serology alone, an antigen skin test and electron microscopy of urine are not the diagnostic approach.
- MCQ
How is CCHFV maintained within its tick population across generations?
- A. Reinfection from viraemic humans each season
- B. Sexual transmission between adult ticks only
- C. Carriage in migratory-bird droppings
- D. Annual reintroduction from mosquitoes
- E. Transovarial and transstadial transmission
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The tick is both vector and reservoir: it passes CCHFV transstadially across its moults and transovarially into its eggs, so the enzootic cycle persists without the vertebrate host being permanently infected.
Humans are dead-end hosts, and mosquitoes play no part in the cycle.
- MCQ
How is the genetic diversity of Lassa virus best described?
- A. A single, globally uniform strain
- B. Structured by geography, greatest in Nigeria
- C. Accumulating steadily over time, like a clock
- D. Driven by antigenic drift, as in influenza
- E. Confined to one lineage in Sierra Leone
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Lassa virus diversity is strongly geographic and is greatest in Nigeria, consistent with a Nigerian origin; six major lineages are currently recognised.
The diversity is not a single clone, is not clock-like or drift-driven, and is not confined to one region.
- MCQ
Immune convalescent plasma is an established treatment for which disease, and works best when given:
- A. Bolivian haemorrhagic fever, given only well after the second week
- B. Argentine haemorrhagic fever, given within the first week
- C. Lassa fever, given at any stage of illness
- D. All arenaviral infections equally
- E. Chapare fever, given as prophylaxis
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Transfusion of immune convalescent plasma is established for Argentine haemorrhagic fever and reduces mortality substantially when given within roughly the first week.
It is not a general treatment for the other arenaviruses, and its benefit depends on early administration.
- MCQ
In a patient who dies of CCHF, antibody testing is typically:
- A. Strongly positive for IgM antibody
- B. Positive for IgG but not IgM
- C. The single most reliable diagnostic method available
- D. Negative, as antibody often fails to appear
- E. Falsely positive through cross-reaction
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Specific IgM and IgG appear around days five to seven only in those who survive; fatal cases usually die before they seroconvert.
Molecular detection, not serology, is therefore decisive in severe disease, and a negative antibody result never excludes CCHF in a severely ill patient.
- MCQ
In any suspected viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), which diagnosis must be actively excluded in every case?
- A. Malaria
- B. Influenza
- C. COVID-19
- D. Tuberculosis
- E. Hepatitis A
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Malaria is the priority exclusion in every suspected VHF, because it is far more common in the same patients and can coexist with a VHF.
The other conditions are not the critical parallel diagnosis.
- MCQ
In CCHF, a blood viral load above about 10⁸ genome copies per millilitre is associated with:
- A. A fatal outcome
- B. Subclinical infection
- C. Durable sterilising immunity
- D. Reduced onward transmissibility
- E. Emergent ribavirin resistance
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Viral loads above roughly 10⁸ genome copies per millilitre predict a fatal course, whereas lower loads accompany milder disease.
Viral load, platelet count and clotting times are combined in severity scores; a high load signals worse, not milder, disease.
- MCQ
In severe viral haemorrhagic fever, what is the principal mechanism of circulatory failure?
- A. Direct viral destruction of the endothelium
- B. Massive external blood loss
- C. Cytokine-driven vascular permeability
- D. Autoantibodies against clotting factors
- E. Viral infection of cardiac myocytes
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The dominant lesion is a cytokine-driven increase in vascular permeability, the same capillary leak seen in septic shock, which collapses intravascular volume and blood pressure.
Endothelial infection can occur but is not the main driver, frank haemorrhage is usually a minor feature, and neither autoantibodies nor myocardial infection explains the shock.
- MCQ
In South Africa, a suspected case of Lassa fever:
- A. Is not a notifiable medical condition
- B. Is endemic in the Western Cape
- C. Is a category 1 notifiable condition, reported immediately
- D. May be nursed with standard precautions on an ordinary open ward
- E. Requires no confirmatory reference-laboratory testing
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Lassa fever is a category 1 notifiable medical condition in South Africa, requiring immediate reporting on suspicion, and any suspected case is managed through the national viral haemorrhagic fever pathway with reference-laboratory confirmation.
It is not endemic in South Africa but is an importation risk, and it demands maximum-containment isolation rather than standard ward care.
- MCQ
In South Africa, when must a suspected case of Ebola virus disease be notified?
- A. Within seven days of laboratory confirmation
- B. Only after the NICD reference laboratory has confirmed the diagnosis in writing
- C. Monthly, in aggregate returns
- D. Only if the patient dies
- E. Immediately on clinical suspicion, before laboratory confirmation
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Ebola disease is a Category 1 Notifiable Medical Condition, requiring immediate reporting on clinical suspicion, before laboratory confirmation, so that isolation and the outbreak response can begin without delay.
Waiting for confirmation, reporting weekly or monthly, or reporting only fatal cases would all breach the immediate-notification requirement.
- MCQ
In South Africa, which pair of arboviral infections must be notified within 24 hours as Category 1 conditions?
- A. Dengue and Zika
- B. Chikungunya and Sindbis
- C. West Nile and yellow fever
- D. Dengue and chikungunya
- E. Rift Valley fever and Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Rift Valley fever and Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever are Category 1 notifiable medical conditions and must be notified within 24 hours, reflecting their haemorrhagic-fever severity.
All other arboviral infections, whether endemic or imported, are Category 3 and reported through routine channels.
- MCQ
In the 2008 Lujo outbreak, transmission after the index case occurred mainly by:
- A. The bite of an infected mosquito
- B. Ingestion of contaminated water
- C. Direct exposure to infected rodent urine and droppings
- D. Unprotected sexual contact
- E. Person-to-person spread in healthcare settings
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Every Lujo case after the index patient was acquired in hospital, by person-to-person spread to those providing care.
No vector, water or rodent-exposure route was involved in the secondary cases, which is why infection prevention and control is the central lesson of the outbreak.
- MCQ
In the adult mouse model, the fatal choriomeningitis of lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus is caused by:
- A. Direct viral lysis of cerebral neurons
- B. Antibody and complement damage
- C. The cytotoxic T-lymphocyte response
- D. Bacterial superinfection
- E. Immune-complex vasculitis
Show answer
Correct answer: C
In the adult mouse the fatal disease is caused by the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte response, the classic demonstration that a virus-specific T-cell response can mediate immunopathology as well as viral clearance.
It is not due to direct neuronal lysis, antibody or complement, bacterial superinfection or immune-complex vasculitis.
- MCQ
In the ebolaviruses, what is the function of the VP24 protein?
- A. It is the viral polymerase
- B. It edits the glycoprotein gene during transcription
- C. It is the matrix protein
- D. It blocks interferon signalling through STAT1
- E. It is the nucleoprotein
Show answer
Correct answer: D
In the ebolaviruses, VP24 blocks interferon signalling through STAT1 (signal transducer and activator of transcription 1), while VP35 is the shared antagonist masking viral RNA from RIG-I (retinoic acid inducible gene I) and the marburgviruses use VP40 for the same effect.
VP24 is not the polymerase, matrix protein or nucleoprotein, and it does not edit the glycoprotein gene.
- MCQ
In the first recognised Ebola outbreak, at Yambuku in 1976, which factor most amplified transmission within the mission hospital?
- A. Reuse of unsterilised needles and syringes
- B. Airborne spread between hospital wards and staff rooms
- C. Contaminated drinking water
- D. Mosquito transmission
- E. Rodent-to-human contact
Show answer
Correct answer: A
The 1976 Yambuku outbreak was amplified by the reuse of unsterilised needles and syringes, which spread the virus among patients and staff and gave an early lesson in health-care transmission.
Ebola virus is not airborne and is not spread by mosquitoes or by water; contact with an animal source seeds the index case but does not sustain hospital amplification.
- MCQ
Laboratory diagnosis of acute Rift Valley fever relies mainly on:
- A. Blood culture
- B. Identification of the tick vector involved
- C. RT-PCR and IgM-capture ELISA on blood
- D. Stool antigen detection
- E. Cerebrospinal fluid microscopy
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Because viraemia is high in the acute phase, reverse-transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) and immunoglobulin M (IgM) capture ELISA on blood are the mainstays, supported by virus isolation and paired serology.
RVF is mosquito-borne, so there is no tick to identify.
- MCQ
Lassa fever in pregnancy is characterised by:
- A. Milder, self-limiting disease compared with non-pregnant adults
- B. Risk confined to the first trimester
- C. Teratogenesis but low fetal loss
- D. Fetal loss approaching 100% in the third trimester
- E. Protection conferred by the pregnant state
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Lassa fever is far more severe in pregnancy, with fetal loss approaching 100% in the third trimester and high maternal mortality; evacuation of the uterus improves maternal survival.
Pregnancy worsens rather than protects, and the danger is greatest late, not confined to early gestation.
- MCQ
Lassa virus was first identified in 1969. In which country did the original chain of infection occur?
- A. Nigeria
- B. Sierra Leone
- C. Liberia
- D. Guinea
- E. Democratic Republic of the Congo
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Lassa virus was first isolated in 1969 in the town of Lassa, north-eastern Nigeria, after a mission nurse fell fatally ill and the infection spread to those who cared for her.
Sierra Leone, Liberia and Guinea are all part of the endemic zone but not the site of the 1969 identification, and the virus is not native to the Democratic Republic of the Congo.
- MCQ
LCMV enters host cells by binding:
- A. Alpha-dystroglycan
- B. Transferrin receptor 1
- C. Neuropilin-2
- D. The CD4 molecule
- E. Sialic acid residues
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Like the other Old World arenaviruses, LCMV binds alpha-dystroglycan to enter cells, followed by endocytosis and low-pH fusion.
Transferrin receptor 1 serves the New World arenaviruses and neuropilin-2 serves Lujo; CD4 and sialic acid are not its receptor.
- MCQ
LCMV was first isolated in 1933 during the investigation of an outbreak initially attributed to:
- A. St. Louis encephalitis
- B. Poliomyelitis
- C. Rabies
- D. Yellow fever
- E. Acute bacterial meningitis
Show answer
Correct answer: A
LCMV was isolated in 1933 by Armstrong and Lillie during an investigation of a presumed St. Louis encephalitis outbreak, and was soon recognised as a distinct cause of aseptic meningitis.
The other conditions were not the setting of its discovery.
- MCQ
Lujo virus is unusual among arenaviruses because it enters cells using:
- A. Alpha-dystroglycan, as the other Old World arenaviruses do
- B. Transferrin receptor 1, like New World viruses
- C. Neuropilin-2, with CD63 as an intracellular factor
- D. The CD4 receptor
- E. LAMP1 as its primary surface receptor
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Lujo virus binds neuropilin-2 at the cell surface and depends on the tetraspanin CD63 in the late endosome to trigger fusion, a pathway independent of the usual arenavirus receptors.
Alpha-dystroglycan and transferrin receptor 1 serve the other arenaviruses; CD4 and LAMP1 are not its surface receptor.
- MCQ
Lujo virus was originally identified by:
- A. Conventional virus culture on Vero cell monolayers
- B. A routine antigen-detection ELISA
- C. Unbiased metagenomic deep sequencing
- D. Electron microscopy of serum alone
- E. A commercial rapid antibody test
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Lujo virus was discovered by unbiased metagenomic deep sequencing within days of the outbreak, when conventional tests had failed, making it one of the first human pathogens found this way.
Culture, antigen ELISA, microscopy and antibody tests did not identify the novel agent; today diagnosis uses RT-PCR under maximum containment.
- MCQ
Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus is an important but under-recognised cause of which of the following?
- A. Congenital hydrocephalus and chorioretinitis
- B. Adult haemorrhagic fever with high mortality
- C. Tick-borne encephalitis
- D. Post-transfusion hepatitis
- E. Chronic renal failure
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Congenital lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus infection causes fetal death, hydrocephalus and chorioretinitis, so it belongs in the differential of congenital infection.
The virus does not typically cause adult haemorrhagic fever, tick-borne encephalitis, post-transfusion hepatitis or chronic renal failure.
- MCQ
Machupo virus, identified in 1963, causes:
- A. Argentine haemorrhagic fever
- B. Bolivian haemorrhagic fever
- C. Venezuelan haemorrhagic fever
- D. Brazilian haemorrhagic fever
- E. Lassa fever
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Machupo virus causes Bolivian haemorrhagic fever, identified in 1963 by Karl Johnson’s team during an outbreak in the Beni region and carried by the rodent Calomys callosus.
The other diseases are caused by different arenaviruses.
- MCQ
Most human RVF infection is acquired through:
- A. The bite of an infected tick
- B. Person-to-person contact
- C. Drinking untreated contaminated surface water
- D. The bite of an infected mosquito
- E. Contact with infected animal blood or tissue
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Although mosquitoes drive the animal epizootic, most people are infected by direct contact with the blood or tissues of infected livestock, during slaughter, birthing and the handling of aborted material.
Mosquito bite is a lesser route, and there is no person-to-person spread.
- MCQ
On the RVFV surface, the Gn and Gc glycoproteins form:
- A. A helical nucleocapsid
- B. Club-shaped haemagglutinin spikes
- C. Randomly scattered spikes over a matrix layer
- D. An icosahedral protein capsid enclosing the genome
- E. An ordered icosahedral glycoprotein lattice
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Gn and Gc are arranged as an ordered icosahedral lattice on the lipid envelope, a more regular surface than the pleomorphic nairoviruses, and there is no matrix protein.
The genome exists as a ribonucleoprotein, not an icosahedral capsid.
- MCQ
Person-to-person transmission of LCMV is recognised through which route?
- A. Ordinary respiratory droplet spread between household adults
- B. Ordinary sexual contact
- C. The faecal-oral route within a household
- D. The bite of an infected culicine mosquito
- E. Across the placenta and by organ transplantation
Show answer
Correct answer: E
LCMV does not spread by ordinary contact; the only recognised human-to-human routes are across the placenta and through organ transplantation.
Respiratory, sexual, faecal-oral and vector transmission between people are not features of the virus.
- MCQ
Recovery from a New World arenaviral haemorrhagic fever depends chiefly on:
- A. The interferon response alone
- B. Complement fixation
- C. Direct viral clearance by neutrophils
- D. The antibody response
- E. Natural killer cells alone
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Control of the New World haemorrhagic fevers depends chiefly on the antibody response, which is why passive transfer of immune plasma is effective in Argentine haemorrhagic fever.
This contrasts with Lassa fever, where T-cell immunity is decisive; the other mechanisms are not the main route of recovery.
- MCQ
Rift Valley fever retinitis characteristically appears:
- A. During the first 24 hours of the fever illness
- B. Only after several years
- C. At the same time as a rash
- D. Before any fever begins
- E. One to three weeks after the first symptoms
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Retinitis typically develops one to three weeks after the initial symptoms, sometimes after the fever has settled, and where it involves the macula it can cause permanent visual loss.
- MCQ
Rift Valley fever virus belongs to which family?
- A. Phenuiviridae
- B. Nairoviridae
- C. Hantaviridae
- D. Filoviridae
- E. Flaviviridae
Show answer
Correct answer: A
RVFV is a phlebovirus in the family Phenuiviridae, order Bunyavirales.
Nairoviridae (Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever) and Hantaviridae are the other bunyavirus families of note; filoviruses and flaviviruses are unrelated.
- MCQ
Rift Valley fever was first described, in 1930 to 1931, from which event?
- A. A human encephalitis outbreak in the Nile delta of Egypt
- B. An outbreak of abortion and lamb deaths on a Kenyan farm
- C. A haemorrhagic fever cluster in the Belgian Congo
- D. A tick-borne haemorrhagic fever among Crimean farm workers
- E. A mosquito survey along the East African coast
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Daubney and Hudson described the disease from an outbreak of abortions and lamb deaths on a farm in Kenya’s Rift Valley, naming it enzootic hepatitis.
The Egyptian, Congo and Crimean events belong to other viruses or to much later outbreaks.
- MCQ
RVFV is notably transmissible by which route, a recognised hazard to laboratory staff?
- A. Faecal-oral spread
- B. Aerosol
- C. Sexual contact
- D. Respiratory droplets coughed by patients
- E. Vertical transmission only
Show answer
Correct answer: B
RVFV is highly infectious by aerosol, which caused many laboratory-acquired infections before modern biosafety practice, and is one reason it is handled under enhanced containment.
It does not spread from patient to patient by droplets.
- MCQ
Sabia virus is notable for having caused:
- A. A large sustained community epidemic across the rural Argentine pampas
- B. Chronic viral hepatitis
- C. Laboratory-acquired infections, one after a centrifuge accident
- D. A vaccine-derived outbreak
- E. Widespread sustained person-to-person spread
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Sabia virus is known from only a few cases, including laboratory-acquired infections, one following a centrifuge accident, which underlined the hazard of handling these viruses.
It has not caused a large epidemic or the other listed events.
- MCQ
Specific treatment of Lujo fever rests on:
- A. High-dose systemic corticosteroid therapy
- B. Ribavirin, used by analogy with Lassa fever
- C. Intravenous aciclovir
- D. A specifically licensed anti-Lujo antiviral drug
- E. Convalescent plasma of proven benefit
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Treatment is supportive, with ribavirin used by analogy with Lassa fever; the single survivor of the 2008 cluster received it early.
No Lujo-specific antiviral or proven plasma therapy exists, and corticosteroids and aciclovir have no role.
- MCQ
Symptomatic CCHF classically progresses through which sequence of phases?
- A. Catarrhal, paroxysmal, then convalescent
- B. Febrile, hypotensive, oliguric, diuretic, then convalescent
- C. Incubation, prehaemorrhagic, haemorrhagic, convalescence
- D. Prodrome, remission, then encephalitic
- E. Acute, latent, then reactivation
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The course runs through incubation, a prehaemorrhagic phase, a haemorrhagic phase and convalescence.
The febrile-hypotensive-oliguric-diuretic sequence describes hantavirus haemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome, and a latent-reactivation pattern belongs to the herpesviruses.
- MCQ
Tacaribe virus is unusual among the clade B arenaviruses because it:
- A. Causes by far the most severe of all the haemorrhagic fevers
- B. Is carried by Calomys field rodents
- C. Uses alpha-dystroglycan as its receptor
- D. Is a bat-associated virus that does not cause human disease
- E. Has a licensed human vaccine
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Tacaribe virus was isolated from bats rather than rodents and does not cause human disease, making it a useful and safer laboratory surrogate for its dangerous clade B relatives.
The other statements are untrue of it.
- MCQ
The 'swollen baby syndrome' seen in Lassa fever comprises:
- A. Microcephaly with periventricular intracranial calcification
- B. Bullous skin lesions with desquamation
- C. Generalised oedema, distension and bleeding in infants
- D. Limb hypoplasia with cataracts
- E. Cyanosis from congenital heart disease
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The swollen baby syndrome is an often-fatal presentation of Lassa fever in children, combining generalised oedema, abdominal distension and bleeding.
The other descriptions belong to congenital infections and unrelated conditions.
- MCQ
The 1967 outbreaks that led to the discovery of Marburg virus arose from exposure to what?
- A. Tissue from African green monkeys imported from Uganda
- B. A captive research colony of African fruit bats
- C. Contaminated blood-product transfusion batches
- D. Travellers returning from a large West African outbreak
- E. Rodents handled during vaccine production work
Show answer
Correct answer: A
The 1967 outbreaks struck laboratory and animal-facility staff exposed to tissue from African green monkeys imported from Uganda for vaccine and research work, infecting 31 people and killing 7.
The reservoir bat was identified only decades later; the source was not a bat colony, blood products, returning travellers or rodents.
- MCQ
The 2019 Chapare virus cluster in La Paz demonstrated that these viruses:
- A. Are transmitted solely by the bite of infected mosquito vectors
- B. Do not spread between people
- C. Pose no risk to healthcare workers
- D. Cause only a mild and self-limiting febrile illness
- E. Can spread person-to-person in healthcare settings
Show answer
Correct answer: E
A 2019 cluster of Chapare virus in La Paz spread to healthcare workers, with fatalities, showing that these viruses can transmit person-to-person and are not always dead-end infections.
They are rodent-borne, not mosquito-borne, and can cause severe disease and nosocomial risk.
- MCQ
The bleeding tendency in severe CCHF is driven mainly by:
- A. Autoantibodies that destroy circulating platelets
- B. Vitamin K deficiency caused by hepatic failure
- C. Direct viral destruction of the entire vascular endothelium
- D. Host cytokine-driven endothelial injury with DIC
- E. Widespread thrombosis of the hepatic veins
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Severe CCHF bleeding reflects a dysregulated pro-inflammatory cytokine response, with high tumour necrosis factor alpha, interleukin-6 and interleukin-8, causing endothelial dysfunction and disseminated intravascular coagulation.
Direct lysis of all endothelium, autoantibodies and vitamin K deficiency are not the principal mechanism.
- MCQ
The CCHF incubation period is typically shortest after which exposure?
- A. A tick bite
- B. Contact with infected human blood
- C. Handling infected livestock tissue
- D. A nosocomial needlestick injury
- E. Contact with a viraemic patient's secretions
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Incubation is shortest after a tick bite, usually about one to three days. After exposure to infected blood or tissue it is longer, around five to seven days and occasionally up to thirteen.
All the blood- and tissue-contact routes give a longer interval than the tick bite.
- MCQ
The CCHFV L protein's ovarian-tumour (OTU) domain aids immune evasion by:
- A. Cleaving the viral glycoprotein precursor into the Gn and Gc subunits
- B. Adding a methyl cap to viral messenger RNA
- C. Stripping ubiquitin and ISG15 from signalling proteins
- D. Integrating a DNA copy into the host genome
- E. Preventing assembly of the host ribosome
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The OTU domain is a deubiquitinase and deISGylase: it removes regulatory ubiquitin and ISG15 tags from innate-immune signalling proteins, damping the type I interferon response.
Glycoprotein cleavage, capping, integration and translational shut-off are unrelated to this domain.
- MCQ
The cerebrospinal fluid in LCMV meningitis characteristically shows:
- A. A neutrophil-predominant pleocytosis with a normal glucose
- B. A normal cell count and protein
- C. A marked lymphocytic pleocytosis with low glucose
- D. Xanthochromia only
- E. Eosinophils with a raised opening pressure
Show answer
Correct answer: C
LCMV meningitis characteristically produces a marked lymphocytic pleocytosis, sometimes over a thousand cells, with a low cerebrospinal fluid glucose.
The low glucose is a useful clue, since many viral meningitides leave it normal; the other patterns are not typical.
- MCQ
The clinical illness of Lujo fever, as seen in 2008:
- A. Was mild and self-limiting in every patient
- B. Was limited to a transient skin rash without systemic upset
- C. Was clinically quite distinct from Lassa fever in most respects
- D. Resembled severe Lassa fever, ending in multiorgan failure
- E. Presented purely as a viral encephalitis
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Lujo fever closely resembled severe Lassa fever, beginning with nonspecific fever, headache, myalgia, sore throat and diarrhoea and progressing to facial oedema, bleeding, respiratory and renal failure and circulatory collapse.
It was neither mild, rash-limited nor a pure encephalitis, and it did not differ fundamentally from Lassa.
- MCQ
The current human vaccine situation for Rift Valley fever is:
- A. A live-attenuated human vaccine is used routinely across all endemic areas
- B. An mRNA vaccine is licensed in endemic areas
- C. It is included in the childhood immunisation schedule
- D. No vaccine exists or is in development
- E. No licensed vaccine, but a single-dose ChAdOx1 candidate is in trials
Show answer
Correct answer: E
There is no licensed human RVF vaccine; the most advanced candidate, ChAdOx1 RVF, was safe and immunogenic after a single dose in a phase 1 trial and is designed for both livestock and people.
Older inactivated preparations have protected only small numbers of laboratory and veterinary workers.
- MCQ
The diagnostic test of choice in early Lassa fever is:
- A. Bacterial blood culture
- B. Reverse transcription PCR (RT-PCR)
- C. IgG antibody serology
- D. Electron microscopy of serum
- E. A peripheral blood film for malaria parasites
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) is the mainstay of early Lassa diagnosis, positive in most cases within the first ten days and able to quantify the prognostically important viral load.
IgG appears too late to diagnose acute disease, culture and electron microscopy are impractical, and a blood film addresses the malaria differential, not Lassa.
- MCQ
The epidemiology of Lujo virus is characterised by:
- A. Recurrent annual outbreaks reported widely across southern Africa
- B. A large endemic zone throughout West Africa
- C. A well-defined rodent reservoir
- D. A single known outbreak, with the reservoir still unidentified
- E. Widespread asymptomatic human infection in the region
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Lujo virus is known from a single event, the 2008 cluster of five cases, and its reservoir has never been identified.
Unlike Lassa it has no defined endemic zone or reservoir, and no recurrent or widespread infection has been documented.
- MCQ
The estimated incubation period of Lujo fever is approximately:
- A. A few hours
- B. 1 to 2 days
- C. 6 to 12 weeks
- D. 2 to 4 months
- E. 7 to 13 days
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The incubation period of Lujo fever is estimated at about 7 to 13 days, based on the 2008 cluster.
The other intervals are too short or too long for the observed course.
- MCQ
The first confirmed emergence of RVFV outside Africa occurred in:
- A. Egypt in 1977
- B. India in 2010
- C. Saudi Arabia and Yemen in 2000
- D. The southern coast of France in 2014
- E. Madagascar in 1979
Show answer
Correct answer: C
In 2000 RVFV appeared in Saudi Arabia and Yemen, its first confirmed spread beyond Africa, probably carried across the Red Sea in infected livestock.
Egypt and Madagascar are within Africa, and the Indian and European events did not occur.
- MCQ
The genome of Lassa virus is:
- A. Positive-sense and non-segmented
- B. Double-stranded DNA
- C. Bisegmented and ambisense
- D. Tripartite and negative-sense
- E. Reverse-transcribed via a DNA intermediate
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Lassa virus has a bisegmented, ambisense RNA genome: each of the small and large segments carries one gene in each orientation, giving temporal control of gene expression.
It is neither a DNA virus, nor tripartite, nor retroviral, and it has two segments rather than three.
- MCQ
The haemorrhagic form of Rift Valley fever carries a case fatality of about:
- A. Less than 1%
- B. Around 5%
- C. Around 20%
- D. Up to 65%
- E. Close to 100%
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The haemorrhagic-hepatic form is the most lethal, with a case fatality of up to around 65%.
The milder febrile illness that most patients experience has a very low mortality.
- MCQ
The hepatic injury of Lassa fever is best characterised as:
- A. Immune-complex mediated injury
- B. Direct viral cytopathic injury
- C. Injury from disseminated intravascular coagulation
- D. Autoimmune hepatitis
- E. Ischaemic injury from shock alone
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The hepatic injury of Lassa fever is a direct viral cytopathic effect, with multifocal hepatocellular necrosis and little inflammation, unlike the immunopathology of lymphocytic choriomeningitis.
It is not immune-complex, coagulation-driven, autoimmune or purely ischaemic in origin.
- MCQ
The incubation period of Rift Valley fever is typically:
- A. A few hours
- B. 10 to 14 days
- C. 2 to 6 days
- D. 2 to 6 weeks
- E. 1 to 3 months
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The incubation period is short, usually 2 to 6 days, after which most people have a brief self-limiting fever.
The longer intervals describe other infections.
- MCQ
The licensed Ervebo vaccine protects against which filovirus?
- A. Zaire ebolavirus only
- B. All ebolavirus species
- C. Marburg virus
- D. Sudan ebolavirus
- E. Bundibugyo ebolavirus
Show answer
Correct answer: A
The licensed Ervebo vaccine protects against Zaire ebolavirus only.
Its glycoprotein is Zaire-specific, so cross-protection against the Sudan, Bundibugyo and Marburg viruses cannot be assumed.
- MCQ
The name 'Lujo' derives from:
- A. Lusaka and Johannesburg, its 2008 outbreak cities
- B. The Luo people of the East African lake region and beyond
- C. A Latin word for jaundice
- D. Its discoverer, the virologist J. Lujo
- E. A river said to run through western Zambia
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Lujo is a contraction of Lusaka and Johannesburg, the two cities between which the 2008 outbreak unfolded after the index patient was evacuated from Zambia to South Africa.
The other derivations are invented.
- MCQ
The name Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever reflects which historical fact?
- A. It was isolated in Crimea and the Congo at the same time
- B. It is carried by ticks unique to those two regions
- C. A Crimean fever and a separate Congo virus proved identical
- D. Two researchers from Crimea and the Congo jointly discovered it
- E. It causes different diseases in Crimea and the Congo
Show answer
Correct answer: C
In 1969 Jordi Casals showed that the agent of Crimean haemorrhagic fever was identical to the Congo virus isolated in the Belgian Congo in 1956, and the two names were joined.
The virus was described in the Crimea in 1944 but not isolated until 1967; it was not co-discovered, and it causes one disease across its range.
- MCQ
The natural reservoir of LCMV is:
- A. The multimammate rat
- B. Ticks of the genus Ixodes
- C. Fruit bats
- D. The common house mouse
- E. Cattle
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The natural reservoir of LCMV is the common house mouse (Mus musculus), which is infected for life and sheds virus in its excreta, giving the virus a worldwide distribution.
The other animals are reservoirs of unrelated agents.
- MCQ
The New World arenaviruses are carried in nature by:
- A. Murid mice of the African savanna region
- B. Ixodid ticks
- C. Culex mosquitoes
- D. Fruit bats of the Americas
- E. Cricetid rodents of the Americas
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The New World arenaviruses form the Tacaribe serocomplex and are carried by cricetid rodents of the Americas, each virus tied to a particular reservoir species.
Murid mice carry the Old World arenaviruses; ticks, mosquitoes and bats are not the reservoirs.
- MCQ
The New World arenaviruses that cause haemorrhagic fever all belong to which group?
- A. Clade A
- B. Clade B
- C. Clade C
- D. The Old World complex
- E. The Reptarenavirus genus
Show answer
Correct answer: B
All the pathogenic New World arenaviruses, Junin, Machupo, Guanarito, Sabia and Chapare, fall in clade B.
Clades A and C contain no confirmed human pathogens, and the Old World complex and the reptile-associated genus are separate groups.
- MCQ
The principal target organ in severe Rift Valley fever is the:
- A. Liver
- B. Kidney
- C. Lung
- D. Spleen
- E. Heart
Show answer
Correct answer: A
The liver is the main target and hepatic necrosis is the central lesion of severe RVF, reflected in steeply raised transaminases and, in the worst cases, jaundice and liver failure.
Renal failure occurs but is usually secondary.
- MCQ
The reference laboratory accepts a viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF) specimen only after:
- A. The patient has died
- B. Prior consultation via the hotline
- C. A positive malaria test
- D. Forty-eight hours of observation
- E. Written approval from the health minister
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The reference laboratory accepts a VHF specimen only after prior consultation, through the hotline, with a National Institute for Communicable Diseases (NICD) medical officer and the receiving laboratory, so nothing is dispatched unannounced.
Death, a malaria result, an observation period or ministerial approval are not the gate.
- MCQ
The reservoir of Junin virus (Argentine haemorrhagic fever) is:
- A. The peridomestic house mouse
- B. The drylands vesper mouse Calomys musculinus
- C. The multimammate rat Mastomys natalensis
- D. The South American cane mouse Zygodontomys brevicauda
- E. A fruit bat
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Junin virus is maintained by the drylands vesper mouse Calomys musculinus, a field rodent of the Argentine pampas, which is why Argentine haemorrhagic fever tracks the maize harvest.
Mastomys is the Lassa reservoir and Zygodontomys the Guanarito reservoir; the house mouse and bats are not involved.
- MCQ
The RVFV NSs protein is its major virulence factor because it:
- A. Serves as the viral polymerase
- B. Forms the envelope glycoprotein surface spikes
- C. Antagonises the type I interferon response
- D. Builds the viral nucleocapsid
- E. Mediates host-cell receptor binding
Show answer
Correct answer: C
NSs is the dominant virulence factor: it suppresses the type I interferon response, shutting down host-cell transcription and blocking interferon-beta induction.
The polymerase, glycoproteins and nucleocapsid are separate gene products.
- MCQ
The secreted mucin-like glycoprotein cleaved from the CCHFV M-segment precursor is:
- A. NSm
- B. GP38
- C. The nucleoprotein
- D. Gc
- E. NSs
Show answer
Correct answer: B
GP38 is a secreted glycoprotein cleaved from the M-segment precursor and an important target of protective antibodies.
The same precursor also yields the structural Gn and Gc and the non-structural NSm; the nucleoprotein is an S-segment product, and NSs is a phlebovirus protein not carried by CCHFV.
- MCQ
The specific antiviral historically used to treat Lassa fever is:
- A. Oral oseltamivir
- B. Aciclovir
- C. Intravenous remdesivir
- D. Intravenous ribavirin
- E. Favipiravir
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Intravenous ribavirin is the specific agent of choice for Lassa fever, thought to work best when started early, although the strength of its original evidence is now debated.
Favipiravir is experimental for Lassa, while oseltamivir, aciclovir and remdesivir target unrelated viruses.
- MCQ
The standard submission to the reference laboratory for a live suspected viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF) patient is:
- A. A single EDTA tube
- B. A single serum tube
- C. A urine sample and a throat swab in transport medium
- D. One clotted plus one EDTA tube, with the form
- E. A dried blood spot card
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The standard submission is one clotted-blood tube and one EDTA tube, with the completed case investigation form.
A single tube, urine or a swab alone, or a dried blood spot is not the required submission.
- MCQ
The typical course of symptomatic acquired LCMV infection is:
- A. Fulminant haemorrhage within the first 24 hours
- B. A slowly progressive chronic wasting illness over many months
- C. A painless progressive jaundice
- D. Sudden flaccid paralysis without fever
- E. A biphasic febrile illness, sometimes with meningitis
Show answer
Correct answer: E
After an incubation of about 1 to 2 weeks, symptomatic LCMV is often a biphasic illness: a febrile phase settles briefly and is then followed in a minority by aseptic meningitis.
The other courses are not characteristic of LCMV.
- MCQ
The usual incubation period of Lassa fever is:
- A. 2 to 6 hours
- B. 1 to 3 days
- C. 6 to 12 weeks
- D. 3 to 6 months
- E. 6 to 21 days
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The incubation period of Lassa fever is about 6 to 21 days, most often 10 to 14 days.
The illness then begins insidiously rather than abruptly, which helps distinguish it from the shorter-incubation causes of acute fever.
- MCQ
The usual incubation period of the South American haemorrhagic fevers is:
- A. Less than 24 hours
- B. 1 to 2 days
- C. 6 to 12 weeks
- D. Several months
- E. 6 to 14 days
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The incubation period is about 6 to 14 days, after which illness begins gradually rather than abruptly.
The other intervals are too short or too long.
- MCQ
To which group does Lassa virus belong?
- A. New World arenavirus clade A
- B. New World arenavirus clade B
- C. Reptarenavirus genus
- D. Hartmanivirus genus
- E. Old World arenavirus complex
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Lassa virus is an Old World arenavirus, the African and Eurasian complex that also contains lymphocytic choriomeningitis and Lujo viruses.
The New World clades hold the South American haemorrhagic fever agents, while reptarenaviruses and hartmaniviruses infect snakes, not humans.
- MCQ
Uncomplicated Rift Valley fever usually presents as:
- A. A slowly progressive wasting illness over months
- B. An abrupt, often biphasic influenza-like fever
- C. A maculopapular rash without fever
- D. Painless obstructive jaundice
- E. A chronic relapsing arthritis
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Most infections are an abrupt, often biphasic influenza-like illness with fever, myalgia, arthralgia and headache, sometimes with photophobia and neck stiffness that can mimic meningitis, resolving over four to seven days.
- MCQ
Under the One Health approach, the most effective way to prevent human RVF is:
- A. Mass vaccination of the human population
- B. Isolation and barrier nursing of patients
- C. Antiviral prophylaxis for close contacts
- D. Vaccination of livestock
- E. Eliminating every mosquito breeding site
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Because livestock amplify the virus and are the main source of human infection, vaccinating animals is the most effective way to protect people, the logic of One Health.
Patients are not infectious to others, and mosquito eradication is not feasible during floods.
- MCQ
What accounts for the profound lymphopenia in severe filovirus disease?
- A. Direct productive viral infection of lymphocytes
- B. Antibody-mediated lysis
- C. Bone marrow failure
- D. Splenic sequestration
- E. Bystander apoptosis of uninfected lymphocytes
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The lymphopenia arises from bystander apoptosis of uninfected lymphocytes, since lymphocytes are not productively infected in filovirus disease.
It is not caused by direct lymphocyte infection, antibody lysis, marrow failure or splenic sequestration.
- MCQ
What best explains the coagulopathy and bleeding tendency of Ebola virus disease?
- A. Direct viral lysis of vascular endothelium
- B. Autoantibodies directed against platelets
- C. Dietary vitamin K deficiency
- D. Tissue factor from macrophages triggering DIC
- E. Hepatic failure alone causing factor deficiency
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The bleeding tendency reflects disseminated intravascular coagulation triggered by tissue factor released from infected macrophages, which consumes clotting factors and platelets; overt haemorrhage is a minority, late feature.
It is not caused by direct endothelial lysis, anti-platelet autoantibodies, vitamin K deficiency, or hepatic failure alone.
- MCQ
What best explains the shock of severe Marburg virus disease?
- A. Direct viral destruction of the endothelial vessel-wall lining
- B. Massive external blood loss
- C. Functional vascular leak from inflammation and coagulopathy
- D. Direct infection of cardiac muscle
- E. An autoimmune vasculitis
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Shock reflects a functional increase in vascular permeability driven by inflammation and coagulopathy; the endothelium is infected but not extensively destroyed, so survivors recover without lasting vascular damage.
It is not caused by direct destruction of the vessel wall, external exsanguination, cardiac infection or autoimmune vasculitis.
- MCQ
What best reflects the current evidence for ribavirin in viral haemorrhagic fever?
- A. It cures Ebola virus disease
- B. It is a live-attenuated vaccine
- C. Benefit in Lassa fever is unproven
- D. It is contraindicated across the VHFs
- E. It prevents infection if given before exposure
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Recent appraisal regards the benefit of ribavirin in Lassa fever and Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever as unproven, though older evidence supported its use in Lassa and in haemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome.
Ribavirin is an antiviral, not a vaccine, has no role against Ebola, and is neither universally contraindicated nor a pre-exposure prophylactic.
- MCQ
What does ring vaccination involve?
- A. Mass vaccinating every resident of the affected country
- B. Vaccinating a case's contacts and their contacts
- C. Vaccinating only health workers
- D. Vaccinating after exposure only
- E. Vaccinating livestock
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Ring vaccination targets the contacts of a case, and their contacts in turn, to build a protective ring around each case, which contains spread and works even with limited vaccine supply.
It is not mass national vaccination, health-worker-only vaccination, post-exposure-only use, or animal vaccination.
- MCQ
What does the ambisense coding strategy of the arenavirus genome allow?
- A. Integration into host DNA
- B. Reverse transcription of the genome
- C. Direct translation from genomic RNA
- D. Genome reassortment with influenza viruses
- E. Temporal control of gene expression
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The ambisense arrangement lets the virus express its genes in a set temporal order, making the nucleoprotein and polymerase first and the glycoprotein and matrix protein later.
Arenaviruses do not integrate, reverse transcribe or reassort with influenza, and the genome cannot be translated directly.
- MCQ
What exposure window is used operationally to define who is at risk after possible viral haemorrhagic fever contact?
- A. 48 hours
- B. 21 days
- C. 3 months
- D. 7 days
- E. 6 weeks
Show answer
Correct answer: B
A 21-day window from last possible exposure is used operationally, reflecting an incubation period across the syndrome of about 2 to 21 days.
The other intervals are too short or too long to match the syndrome’s incubation.
- MCQ
What gives arenaviruses their grainy appearance and their name?
- A. Surface glycoprotein crystals
- B. Nucleocapsid helical symmetry
- C. Incorporated host ribosomes
- D. Calcified inclusion bodies
- E. Envelope lipid droplets
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The virions take up host ribosomes during assembly, giving the grainy, sand-like appearance that names the family.
The grains are not glycoprotein crystals, calcified bodies or lipid droplets, and the appearance is unrelated to nucleocapsid symmetry.
- MCQ
What is a recognised long-term sequela in survivors of Lassa fever?
- A. Chronic hepatitis
- B. Sensorineural deafness
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Pulmonary fibrosis
- E. Chronic kidney disease
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Up to about a third of survivors of clinical Lassa fever develop permanent sensorineural hearing loss, making Lassa a leading cause of acquired deafness in its endemic region.
The other sequelae are not characteristic of Lassa fever.
- MCQ
What is Marburg virus's place in the history of the filoviruses?
- A. It was discovered shortly after Ebola virus
- B. It was the first filovirus recognised, nine years before Ebola virus
- C. It was discovered in the same year as Ebola virus
- D. It was first identified during the large 2013 West African Ebola epidemic
- E. It was originally classified as an arbovirus
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Marburg virus was the first filovirus ever recognised, in 1967, nine years before Ebola virus, and it established the filamentous morphology that defines the family.
It was not discovered after or alongside Ebola, does not date from the West African epidemic, and is not an arbovirus.
- MCQ
What is South Africa's notable place in the history of Marburg virus disease?
- A. It hosted the first Marburg vaccine efficacy trial during a recent outbreak
- B. The reservoir bat was first discovered there
- C. Johannesburg had the first Marburg cases outside the 1967 cluster, in 1975
- D. The first Ravn virus case occurred there
- E. It recorded the largest Marburg outbreak
Show answer
Correct answer: C
In 1975 Johannesburg saw the first recognised Marburg cases outside the original 1967 European cluster, when a traveller died and two contacts, including an attending nurse, were infected and survived.
It was not the site of the first vaccine trial, the reservoir discovery, the first Ravn case, or the largest outbreak.
- MCQ
What is the characteristic morphology of a filovirus virion?
- A. Bullet-shaped enveloped virion
- B. Brick-shaped virion with a dumbbell-shaped core
- C. Non-enveloped icosahedral capsid
- D. Enveloped filament of uniform 80 nm width and variable length
- E. Spherical enveloped virion with a helical nucleocapsid, ~100 nm across
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Filoviruses are enveloped filaments of uniform ~80 nm diameter and highly variable length, often bent into U-shapes or a figure-of-six, with a helical nucleocapsid inside; the thread-like shape gives the family its name.
They are not icosahedral, brick-shaped (poxviruses), bullet-shaped (rhabdoviruses) or compact spheres.
- MCQ
What is the characteristic morphology of the Marburg virion?
- A. Bullet-shaped enveloped virion
- B. Brick-shaped virion with a dumbbell-shaped core
- C. Non-enveloped icosahedral capsid
- D. Enveloped filament of uniform 80 nm width and variable length
- E. Spherical enveloped virion with a helical nucleocapsid, ~100 nm across
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Marburg virus has the filovirus form: an enveloped filament of uniform ~80 nm diameter and variable length, often looped or hooked, with a helical nucleocapsid inside.
It is not icosahedral, brick-shaped, bullet-shaped or a compact sphere.
- MCQ
What is the current human vaccine situation for CCHF?
- A. A live-attenuated vaccine is given routinely
- B. A recombinant subunit vaccine is WHO-approved
- C. An mRNA vaccine is now licensed across all endemic regions
- D. Universal childhood vaccination covers Africa
- E. Only an inactivated vaccine, used in Bulgaria, exists
Show answer
Correct answer: E
No CCHF vaccine is widely licensed; an inactivated suckling-mouse-brain preparation used in Bulgaria is the only one in human use, and its efficacy has never been rigorously characterised.
Modern inactivated, virus-like-particle, vectored, DNA and subunit candidates remain in early development.
- MCQ
What is the current status of vaccines against Marburg virus?
- A. A single-dose vaccine is licensed and in routine use
- B. None is licensed; several candidates remain in clinical trials
- C. Two vaccines are licensed for children
- D. The Ebola (Zaire) vaccine also cross-protects against Marburg virus
- E. An inactivated vaccine is on the routine schedule
Show answer
Correct answer: B
No Marburg vaccine is licensed; several candidates are in clinical trials, and licensure is hampered because outbreaks are sporadic and small, which makes conventional efficacy trials difficult.
No vaccine is licensed or scheduled, and the Ebola (Zaire) vaccine does not protect against Marburg.
- MCQ
What is the main cause of shock and death in Ebola virus disease?
- A. Massive external haemorrhage with rapid exsanguination
- B. Direct cardiac infection
- C. Airway obstruction
- D. Intracranial haemorrhage
- E. Fluid loss from vomiting and diarrhoea
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The main cause of shock and death is fluid and electrolyte loss from the profuse vomiting and diarrhoea of the wet phase, not exsanguination.
Frank haemorrhage is usually a late and minor feature, and the other mechanisms are not the primary cause.
- MCQ
What is the mainstay of treatment for Marburg virus disease?
- A. A licensed monoclonal antibody given by intravenous infusion
- B. A licensed oral antiviral
- C. Ribavirin
- D. Interferon therapy
- E. Supportive care, since no specific treatment is licensed
Show answer
Correct answer: E
No vaccine or specific treatment is licensed for Marburg disease, so aggressive supportive care is the mainstay, above all fluid and electrolyte replacement.
Unlike Zaire ebolavirus disease, no monoclonal antibody or antiviral is licensed, and ribavirin and interferon have no established role.
- MCQ
What is the natural reservoir of Lassa virus?
- A. The house mouse
- B. The field mouse Calomys musculinus
- C. Mastomys natalensis
- D. Hyalomma ticks
- E. Fruit bats
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Lassa virus is maintained by the multimammate rat Mastomys natalensis, a peridomestic rodent that sheds virus in urine in and around houses.
The house mouse is the lymphocytic choriomeningitis reservoir, Calomys rodents carry the New World agents, and ticks and bats are not arenavirus reservoirs.
- MCQ
What is the single most important element of managing a patient with Ebola virus disease?
- A. Prophylactic broad-spectrum antibiotics given to every patient
- B. Aggressive fluid and electrolyte replacement
- C. High-dose corticosteroids
- D. Routine blood transfusion
- E. High-dose ribavirin
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Aggressive replacement of fluid and electrolytes, matching the losses from vomiting and diarrhoea, is the backbone of care and reduces mortality on its own, independent of any specific drug.
Antibiotics, corticosteroids, routine transfusion and ribavirin are not the primary intervention.
- MCQ
What is the true intracellular receptor used by filoviruses to enter cells?
- A. Angiotensin-converting enzyme 2
- B. The CD4 molecule
- C. Niemann-Pick C1 (NPC1)
- D. Sialic acid
- E. DC-SIGN
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The true intracellular receptor for filoviruses is Niemann-Pick C1 (NPC1), reached deep in the endosome after the glycoprotein is cleaved.
DC-SIGN is an attachment factor rather than the receptor, and angiotensin-converting enzyme 2, CD4 and sialic acid are receptors for other viruses.
- MCQ
What is the usual incubation period of Marburg virus disease?
- A. About 2 to 21 days
- B. A few hours to a day
- C. About 3 to 6 months
- D. About 1 to 2 days
- E. More than a year
Show answer
Correct answer: A
The incubation period is about 2 to 21 days, most often 5 to 10 days, after which illness begins abruptly.
It is not a matter of hours, one to two days, several months or over a year.
- MCQ
What type of vaccine is Ervebo?
- A. An inactivated whole-virus vaccine given in two doses
- B. A protein subunit vaccine
- C. A live recombinant vesicular stomatitis virus
- D. A DNA vaccine
- E. An mRNA vaccine
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Ervebo is a single-dose live recombinant vesicular stomatitis virus carrying the Zaire glycoprotein.
It is not an inactivated, subunit, DNA or mRNA vaccine.
- MCQ
Where is confirmatory viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF) testing performed in South Africa?
- A. In any accredited diagnostic laboratory
- B. Only at the NICD reference laboratory
- C. At the referring hospital laboratory
- D. At a private pathology laboratory
- E. At a provincial laboratory
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Confirmatory VHF testing is done only at the National Institute for Communicable Diseases (NICD) reference laboratory, the Special Viral Pathogens Laboratory, the only biosafety level 4 facility in Africa.
Routine, hospital, private and provincial laboratories may run supporting tests under precautions but do not perform VHF confirmation.
- MCQ
Which agent poses the least risk of person-to-person nosocomial transmission?
- A. Rift Valley fever virus
- B. Ebola virus
- C. Lassa virus
- D. Marburg virus
- E. Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever virus
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Rift Valley fever reaches people from mosquitoes and infected animal tissue, not readily from person to person, so it poses little direct threat to staff.
Ebola, Marburg, Lassa and Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever all spread through blood and body fluids and have caused nosocomial outbreaks.
- MCQ
Which agent requires handling at biosafety level 4 (BSL-4)?
- A. Dengue virus
- B. Rift Valley fever virus
- C. Hantaan virus
- D. Marburg virus
- E. Yellow fever vaccine strain
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Marburg virus is a BSL-4 agent, with the other filoviruses, Lassa, Lujo, Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever and the New World arenaviruses.
Dengue and the yellow fever vaccine strain are handled at lower containment, and Rift Valley fever and hantaviruses at BSL-3.
- MCQ
Which arbovirus carries the greatest risk of nosocomial transmission and requires strict viral haemorrhagic fever isolation?
- A. Dengue virus
- B. West Nile virus
- C. Sindbis virus
- D. Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever virus
- E. Chikungunya virus
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever virus spreads from patient to staff through blood and body fluids and has caused documented nosocomial outbreaks, so suspected cases need barrier nursing and viral haemorrhagic fever isolation.
The mosquito-borne dengue, West Nile, Sindbis and chikungunya viruses do not spread from person to person.
- MCQ
Which are the licensed monoclonal antibody treatments for Zaire ebolavirus disease?
- A. Ribavirin and favipiravir
- B. Remdesivir alone
- C. ZMapp only
- D. Inmazeb and Ebanga
- E. Oseltamivir
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Inmazeb and Ebanga, two antibody products against the Zaire glycoprotein, were shown effective in the PALM trial and are licensed for Zaire ebolavirus disease.
Ribavirin, favipiravir and oseltamivir have no established role, and ZMapp was superseded by the two licensed antibodies.
- MCQ
Which arenavirus emerged within southern Africa and is handled at biosafety level 4?
- A. Junin virus
- B. Guanarito virus
- C. Machupo virus
- D. Tacaribe virus
- E. Lujo virus
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Lujo virus is the arenavirus that emerged within southern Africa, in the 2008 Johannesburg nosocomial cluster, and like the other haemorrhagic arenaviruses it is handled at biosafety level 4.
Junin, Guanarito and Machupo are New World agents of the Americas, and Tacaribe is a non-pathogenic bat-associated virus.
- MCQ
Which arenavirus is most notable for person-to-person nosocomial transmission?
- A. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus
- B. Lassa virus
- C. Tacaribe virus
- D. Latino virus
- E. Mopeia virus
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Lassa virus is the arenavirus most noted for person-to-person and nosocomial transmission, through contact with infected blood and body fluids.
Lymphocytic choriomeningitis, Tacaribe, Latino and Mopeia viruses are not significant causes of human-to-human spread.
- MCQ
Which best describes the Ebola virus genome?
- A. Non-segmented negative-sense RNA, ~19 kb
- B. Positive-sense RNA, ~12 kb
- C. Segmented negative-sense RNA, three segments
- D. Double-stranded DNA, ~19 kb
- E. Ambisense RNA, two segments
Show answer
Correct answer: A
The genome is a single molecule of negative-sense, non-segmented RNA of about 19 kilobases, the largest of the nonsegmented negative-strand RNA viruses, with the gene order NP, VP35, VP40, GP, VP30, VP24, L.
It is not positive-sense, segmented, DNA or ambisense; segmented and ambisense genomes belong to the arenaviruses and bunyaviruses.
- MCQ
Which cells do viral haemorrhagic fever viruses characteristically infect first?
- A. Hepatocytes
- B. Monocytes, macrophages and dendritic cells
- C. Vascular endothelial and smooth muscle cells
- D. Renal tubular cells
- E. Circulating neutrophils
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The viruses first replicate in monocytes, macrophages and dendritic cells, disabling early defence and carrying virus to lymph nodes and organs.
Hepatocytes and endothelium are infected later in broad-tropism agents, and renal tubular and neutrophil infection is not the initiating event.
- MCQ
Which chlorine concentration is used for spills of blood and body fluids?
- A. 0.005%
- B. 0.05%
- C. 0.5%
- D. 5%
- E. 50%
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Spills of blood and body fluids are treated with 0.5% chlorine (5,000 parts per million), left in contact for at least 30 minutes.
The weaker 0.05% solution is for skin and lightly soiled items; the other concentrations are wrong.
- MCQ
Which combination of features best raises suspicion of Lassa fever in an endemic-area patient?
- A. Fever, sore throat, retrosternal pain and proteinuria
- B. Jaundice, dark urine and arthritis
- C. Vesicular rash, lymphadenopathy and cough
- D. Watery diarrhoea, dehydration and cramps
- E. Migratory arthralgia, carditis, chorea and subcutaneous nodules
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Fever with sore throat, retrosternal pain and proteinuria is the combination most predictive of Lassa fever, since no single feature is specific.
The other clusters point instead to hepatitis, a herpes or enteroviral illness, cholera and rheumatic fever.
- MCQ
Which cutaneous feature is characteristic of Marburg virus disease and was described in the original 1967 cases?
- A. A vesicular rash confined to a single dermatomal band
- B. A non-itchy maculopapular rash around day 5
- C. Rose spots on the abdomen
- D. A migratory annular erythema
- E. Desquamation of the palms and soles
Show answer
Correct answer: B
A non-itchy maculopapular rash appearing around the fifth day of illness is characteristic of Marburg disease and was noted in the original 1967 cases.
It is not a vesicular dermatomal rash, rose spots, a migratory erythema or palmar desquamation.
- MCQ
Which Ebola virus protein forms the matrix and drives budding of progeny virions from the cell surface?
- A. VP24
- B. VP35
- C. VP40
- D. VP30
- E. NP
Show answer
Correct answer: C
VP40 is the matrix protein: it lines the envelope, organises assembly and drives budding of progeny filaments through the host ESCRT machinery, and can release particles on its own.
VP35 is the polymerase cofactor and an interferon antagonist, VP30 the transcription activator, VP24 a nucleocapsid-associated interferon antagonist, and NP the nucleoprotein.
- MCQ
Which ebolavirus does not cause disease in humans?
- A. Reston ebolavirus
- B. Zaire ebolavirus
- C. Sudan ebolavirus
- D. Bundibugyo ebolavirus
- E. Taï Forest ebolavirus
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Reston ebolavirus infects pigs and macaques in Asia but has caused no human disease.
The Zaire, Sudan and Bundibugyo species cause large lethal outbreaks, and Taï Forest ebolavirus caused a single non-fatal human case.
- MCQ
Which ebolavirus is associated with a single documented, non-fatal human infection in a scientist who performed a chimpanzee necropsy?
- A. Sudan virus
- B. Reston virus
- C. Taï Forest virus
- D. Bundibugyo virus
- E. Bombali virus
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Taï Forest virus has caused one recorded human infection, which was non-fatal, in an ethologist who autopsied a chimpanzee in Côte d’Ivoire in 1994.
Sudan and Bundibugyo viruses cause severe epidemic disease, Reston is non-pathogenic in humans, and Bombali is known only from bats.
- MCQ
Which ebolavirus was first characterised entirely from its animal host, before any human case was recognised?
- A. Reston virus
- B. Bombali virus
- C. Sudan virus
- D. Zaire ebolavirus
- E. Taï Forest virus
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Bombali virus was identified in insectivorous bats in Sierra Leone in 2018, the first ebolavirus described from its animal host before any human infection was known.
Reston, Sudan, Zaire and Taï Forest viruses were each first recognised through disease in humans or non-human primates.
- MCQ
Which exposure classically precedes the index case of a Marburg outbreak?
- A. A mosquito bite acquired in a rural farming area at dusk
- B. Eating undercooked pork
- C. A tick bite during farming
- D. Entering caves or mines that harbour fruit bats
- E. Swimming in fresh water
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Marburg outbreaks classically follow entry into caves or mines harbouring Egyptian rousette fruit bats, the exposure shared by affected miners and by cave-visiting tourists.
It is not acquired from mosquito or tick bites, undercooked pork, or freshwater exposure.
- MCQ
Which feature distinguishes Junin and Machupo viruses from the Old World arenaviruses in their reservoir hosts?
- A. They cause disease in their rodent hosts
- B. They are transmitted by ticks
- C. They do not persist in the host
- D. They use insectivorous bats as reservoirs
- E. They are not shed in urine
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Unlike the Old World arenaviruses, Junin and Machupo cause disease in their Calomys rodent hosts, including haemolytic anaemia and reduced fertility, which helps regulate the shedding population.
Arenaviruses are rodent-borne rather than tick-borne, are shed in urine, establish persistent infection, and use rodents rather than bats as reservoirs.
- MCQ
Which feature distinguishes the RVFV genome from the strictly negative-sense nairoviruses?
- A. It is a DNA genome
- B. Its S segment is ambisense
- C. It is a single non-segmented molecule
- D. It is entirely positive-sense
- E. It is a circular genome
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The RVFV small (S) segment is ambisense, encoding the nucleocapsid protein in one orientation and the non-structural NSs from the opposite-sense strand.
The genome is otherwise negative-sense, tripartite RNA, not DNA, positive-sense, circular or unsegmented.
- MCQ
Which finding predicts a poor outcome in Lassa fever?
- A. A falling C-reactive protein concentration
- B. Peripheral blood eosinophilia
- C. Isolated unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
- D. A mild reactive lymphocytosis
- E. AST above ~150 IU/L with a high viral load
Show answer
Correct answer: E
A raised aspartate aminotransferase (AST) above about 150 IU/L, together with a high viral load, marks a high risk of death in Lassa fever.
The other findings are not recognised markers of severity.
- MCQ
Which history should prompt considering LCMV in an infant with hydrocephalus and chorioretinitis but a negative standard TORCH screen?
- A. Maternal travel to rural West Africa in pregnancy
- B. A maternal tick bite
- C. Maternal blood transfusion
- D. Maternal contact with rodents in pregnancy
- E. Maternal shellfish consumption
Show answer
Correct answer: D
A history of maternal contact with wild or pet rodents in pregnancy should prompt consideration of congenital LCMV when the standard congenital-infection screen is negative in an infant with hydrocephalus and chorioretinitis.
The other exposures point elsewhere or are irrelevant.
- MCQ
Which host defence do viral haemorrhagic fever viruses most consistently subvert?
- A. Complement-mediated opsonisation
- B. Secretory antibody at mucosal surfaces
- C. The gastric acid barrier
- D. Type I interferon signalling
- E. Neutrophil phagocytic killing
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The shared evasion strategy is suppression of the type I interferon response, for example the Ebola proteins VP35 and VP24, which block interferon induction and signalling, allowing unchecked replication.
Complement, mucosal antibody, gastric acid and phagocytosis are not the pathway these viruses principally target.
- MCQ
Which host protein is the primary cell-surface receptor for Lassa virus entry?
- A. Angiotensin-converting enzyme 2
- B. The CD4 glycoprotein
- C. Nectin-1 (herpesvirus receptor)
- D. Alpha-dystroglycan
- E. Transferrin receptor 1
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Lassa virus, like the other Old World arenaviruses, enters cells by binding alpha-dystroglycan.
Transferrin receptor 1 is the receptor for the pathogenic New World arenaviruses, not Lassa; the remaining options serve unrelated viruses.
- MCQ
Which host response failure is most associated with a fatal RVF outcome?
- A. An excessive antibody response
- B. A strong cytotoxic T-cell response early on
- C. High complement activation
- D. A failed early type I interferon response
- E. Marked eosinophilia
Show answer
Correct answer: D
A failure to mount an early type I interferon response is linked to severe and fatal disease, and those who die often fail to make RVFV-specific antibody.
A brisk innate response followed by neutralising antibody is the correlate of protection.
- MCQ
Which infection in the third trimester of pregnancy carries maternal and fetal mortality approaching 100%?
- A. Lassa fever
- B. Dengue without warning signs
- C. Rift Valley fever
- D. Hantavirus renal syndrome
- E. Yellow fever vaccination
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Third-trimester Lassa and filovirus infection carries maternal and fetal mortality approaching 100%.
The other listed conditions do not carry this near-uniform third-trimester lethality.
- MCQ
Which is a recognised late complication in survivors of Marburg virus disease?
- A. Chronic active hepatitis progressing to cirrhosis over years
- B. Progressive dementia
- C. Orchitis, uveitis and rare relapse as meningoencephalitis
- D. Nephrotic syndrome
- E. Progressive pulmonary fibrosis
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Late complications reflect viral persistence in immune-privileged sites and include orchitis, uveitis, and rare relapse as meningoencephalitis, alongside a broader convalescent syndrome.
Chronic hepatitis, progressive dementia, nephrotic syndrome and pulmonary fibrosis are not characteristic.
- MCQ
Which is a two-dose prophylactic Ebola vaccine regimen, distinct from the single-dose rVSV vaccine Ervebo?
- A. Two doses of an inactivated whole-virus vaccine preparation
- B. Two doses of rVSV-ZEBOV
- C. An mRNA prime-boost regimen
- D. Ad26.ZEBOV prime followed by MVA-BN-Filo boost
- E. A live-attenuated Ebola vaccine
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Zabdeno (Ad26.ZEBOV) followed by Mvabea (MVA-BN-Filo) is a two-dose prophylactic regimen, suited to preventive protection of at-risk groups, in contrast to the single-dose rVSV vaccine Ervebo used reactively in outbreaks.
There is no licensed inactivated, mRNA or live-attenuated whole-virus Ebola vaccine.
- MCQ
Which is generally avoided in the supportive management of viral haemorrhagic fever?
- A. Careful intravenous fluid resuscitation
- B. Electrolyte correction
- C. Blood products
- D. Monitoring of circulating volume
- E. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, aspirin and corticosteroids are avoided, the first two for bleeding and renal risk and steroids for lack of benefit.
Fluids, electrolyte correction, blood products and volume monitoring are mainstays of supportive care.
- MCQ
Which is NOT required for safe viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF) isolation in South African practice?
- A. An ante-room for protective equipment
- B. Active observation of contacts
- C. Chlorine decontamination
- D. Barrier nursing
- E. Negative-pressure ventilation
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Negative-pressure ventilation is not required: South African experience across more than two hundred patients shows that standard isolation without it is adequate.
An ante-room, contact observation, chlorine decontamination and barrier nursing are all part of safe management.
- MCQ
Which is the commonest indigenous viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF) in South Africa?
- A. Lassa fever
- B. Marburg virus disease
- C. Ebola virus disease
- D. Rift Valley fever in epidemic years
- E. Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever is the commonest indigenous VHF in South Africa, with fewer than 10 cases a year, chiefly in the Northern Cape and Free State.
Lassa, Marburg and Ebola are imported rather than indigenous, and Rift Valley fever appears only in epidemic years.
- MCQ
Which is the most consistent predictor of death across Ebola virus disease outbreaks?
- A. Older patient age considered entirely on its own
- B. Presence of a skin rash
- C. Degree of fever
- D. High viral load at presentation
- E. Male sex
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The admission or peak viral load is the most consistent predictor of death, with acute kidney injury and central-nervous-system involvement also marking a poor prognosis.
Age, rash, fever height and sex are far weaker predictors of outcome.
- MCQ
Which laboratory finding is near-universal across the viral haemorrhagic fevers?
- A. Thrombocytopenia
- B. Neutrophilia
- C. Hypoglycaemia
- D. Eosinophilia
- E. Reactive thrombocytosis
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Thrombocytopenia is essentially universal, although it is usually not severe enough on its own to explain bleeding.
Leukopenia is common rather than neutrophilia, and the other abnormalities are not characteristic.
- MCQ
Which measure most directly reduces the risk of Marburg virus spillover to humans?
- A. Avoiding entry to caves and mines that harbour fruit bats
- B. Sleeping under insecticide-treated nets in endemic regions
- C. Chlorinating drinking water supplies
- D. Rodent control within homes
- E. Annual booster vaccination
Show answer
Correct answer: A
The most direct primary-prevention measure is avoiding entry to caves and mines that harbour rousette fruit-bat colonies, or using protection when entry is unavoidable, because these are the sites of spillover.
Bed nets, water chlorination, household rodent control and vaccination do not address the bat-cave route.
- MCQ
Which protein does Marburg virus use to block interferon signalling through the JAK-STAT pathway, differing from the mechanism used by the ebolaviruses?
- A. VP35
- B. VP40
- C. VP24
- D. VP30
- E. NP
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Marburg virus uses VP40 to block the JAK-STAT pathway, disabling the cell’s response to interferon, whereas the ebolaviruses use VP24 to block STAT1 nuclear import; both genera use VP35 to prevent interferon being made.
VP35, VP24, VP30 and NP do not carry out Marburg’s JAK-STAT block.
- MCQ
Which protein is absent from the CCHFV virion?
- A. Matrix protein
- B. Nucleocapsid protein
- C. Gn glycoprotein
- D. Gc glycoprotein
- E. L polymerase
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Like other bunyavirals, CCHFV has no matrix protein. Inside the envelope the three genome segments exist as ribonucleoproteins, each coated by nucleocapsid protein and bound to the L polymerase.
Gn and Gc form the surface spikes, so all four of the other proteins are present.
- MCQ
Which statement about haemorrhage in Ebola virus disease is correct?
- A. Massive external haemorrhage is the usual and expected cause of death
- B. Bleeding is present in every case from onset
- C. Haemorrhage arises from one specific bleeding organ
- D. Bleeding reflects direct viral lysis of the endothelium
- E. Overt bleeding occurs in a minority and is usually a late sign
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Overt haemorrhage occurs in only a minority of patients and is usually a late sign, reflecting consumptive coagulopathy and thrombocytopenia; death is driven by fluid loss, shock and multi-organ failure.
Bleeding is not universal, does not arise from a single organ, and is not due to direct endothelial lysis.
- MCQ
Which statement about infectiousness in Ebola virus disease is correct?
- A. Patients are most infectious during the incubation period, before any symptoms
- B. Asymptomatic carriers drive most transmission
- C. Not infectious until symptomatic, then infectiousness rises with viral load
- D. Infectivity is constant throughout the illness
- E. The body is no longer infectious after death
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Patients are not infectious during the incubation period, and infectiousness rises with the viral load, so the sickest patients and freshly deceased bodies are the most dangerous sources.
Asymptomatic carriage does not drive transmission, infectivity is not constant, and the corpse remains highly infectious after death, which is why safe burial matters.
- MCQ
Which statement about Lassa vaccination is correct?
- A. A live-attenuated vaccine is given on the routine childhood immunisation schedule
- B. No vaccine is licensed; an rVSV-vectored candidate is in late trials
- C. The Candid #1 vaccine reliably protects against Lassa
- D. A recombinant subunit vaccine was licensed in 2015
- E. Prior Lassa infection confers no protective immunity
Show answer
Correct answer: B
There is no licensed Lassa vaccine, but a recombinant vesicular stomatitis virus candidate (rVSVdeltaG-LASV-GPC) has reached advanced clinical trials in West Africa.
Candid #1 is the Junin (Argentine haemorrhagic fever) vaccine, not a Lassa vaccine, and no Lassa subunit vaccine has been licensed.
- MCQ
Which statement about LCMV is correct?
- A. It is a New World clade B arenavirus
- B. It is an Old World arenavirus, not a haemorrhagic fever agent
- C. It characteristically causes a severe viral haemorrhagic fever
- D. It is geographically confined to West Africa
- E. It is a mosquito-borne flavivirus
Show answer
Correct answer: B
LCMV is an Old World arenavirus, but unlike its relatives Lassa and Lujo it is not a haemorrhagic fever agent, and it is distributed worldwide rather than confined to Africa.
It is neither a New World virus nor a flavivirus, and it does not cause haemorrhagic fever.
- MCQ
Which statement about LCMV management or laboratory handling is correct?
- A. Care is supportive, and ribavirin is used without established benefit
- B. A licensed vaccine reliably prevents infection
- C. It requires maximum biosafety level 4 containment, exactly as Lassa does
- D. Intravenous aciclovir is curative
- E. The congenital injury is reversible after birth
Show answer
Correct answer: A
LCMV is managed supportively, and although ribavirin has been used in severe and transplant-associated disease its benefit is not established.
There is no vaccine, aciclovir has no role, LCMV is generally handled at moderate rather than maximum containment, and the congenital injury is fixed by birth.
- MCQ
Which statement about Rift Valley fever treatment is correct?
- A. Care is supportive and ribavirin is not recommended
- B. Ribavirin reliably cures the infection if given early
- C. A licensed oral antiviral is available
- D. Aciclovir is the first-line agent
- E. Corticosteroids are the standard therapy
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Treatment is supportive; unlike for Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever, ribavirin is not recommended for RVF, having been linked to late-onset encephalitis in animal studies, and corticosteroids are not recommended either.
No antiviral is approved for the disease.
- MCQ
Which was by far the largest Ebola outbreak ever recorded?
- A. The 1976 Zaire and Sudan species outbreaks
- B. The 2000 Uganda outbreak
- C. The 2013 to 2016 West African epidemic
- D. The 1967 Marburg outbreak
- E. The 2024 Rwanda outbreak
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The 2013 to 2016 West African epidemic of Zaire ebolavirus was by far the largest ever recorded, causing more than eleven thousand deaths across Guinea, Liberia and Sierra Leone.
The other outbreaks listed were far smaller.
- MCQ
Which was the first New World arenavirus to be characterised?
- A. Junin virus, the cause of Argentine haemorrhagic fever
- B. Machupo virus, identified during a 1963 Bolivian outbreak
- C. Guanarito virus
- D. Sabia virus
- E. Chapare virus, the most recently identified agent
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Junin virus, the cause of Argentine haemorrhagic fever, was the first of the group identified, in the late 1950s.
Machupo followed in 1963, and Guanarito, Sabia and Chapare emerged later.
- MCQ
Which was the largest and most lethal recorded outbreak of Marburg virus disease?
- A. Germany and Yugoslavia, 1967
- B. Rwanda, 2024
- C. Uganda, 2008, among tourists
- D. Durba, Democratic Republic of the Congo, 1998 to 2000
- E. Angola, 2004 to 2005, with a case fatality near 90%
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The Angolan outbreak of 2004 to 2005 was the largest and most lethal recorded, with about 252 cases and a case fatality near 90%.
The 1967 European, 2008 Ugandan tourist, Durba mining and 2024 Rwandan outbreaks were all smaller.
- MCQ
Why can a clade B New World arenavirus infect humans?
- A. Its GP1 also engages the human transferrin receptor 1
- B. It uses the CD4 receptor on human helper T lymphocytes
- C. It binds the human alpha-dystroglycan receptor
- D. It is transmitted directly between people
- E. It integrates into the human genome
Show answer
Correct answer: A
A clade B virus can infect people when its GP1 subunit engages the human form of transferrin receptor 1, not only its rodent host’s version.
This fit to the human receptor, rather than any of the other mechanisms, determines the capacity to spill over.
- MCQ
Why can Ebola outbreaks be brought under control despite the virus's high lethality?
- A. The virus spreads mainly during the incubation period, before symptoms begin
- B. The reproduction number is modest and spread needs direct fluid contact
- C. Herd immunity is reached quickly
- D. The virus is highly unstable in the environment
- E. Most infections are asymptomatic
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The basic reproduction number is modest, around 1.5 to 2, and transmission requires direct contact with infected fluids, so interrupting those contacts through isolation, safe burial and contact tracing halts spread.
Patients are not infectious before symptoms, herd immunity is not reached quickly, environmental stability is not the decisive factor, and most infections are symptomatic.
- MCQ
Why does Lujo virus hold particular significance for South African virology?
- A. It is the only arenaviral haemorrhagic fever to emerge in the region
- B. It is endemic across the Western Cape province
- C. It is a common routine cause of undifferentiated febrile illness locally
- D. It is transmitted by ticks widely found across South Africa
- E. It is prevented by a locally licensed vaccine
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Lujo is the only arenaviral haemorrhagic fever to have emerged within southern Africa, in the 2008 Johannesburg outbreak, which places arenaviral haemorrhagic fever in the local differential and biosafety planning.
It is not endemic, tick-borne, vaccine-preventable or a routine cause of fever.
- MCQ
Why is immunoglobulin M serology an unreliable marker of acute Lassa fever?
- A. IgM appears only in convalescence
- B. The virus is poorly immunogenic
- C. Serology needs maximum containment
- D. IgM persists for months post-infection
- E. IgM cross-reacts with malaria antibody tests
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Immunoglobulin M can persist for months after Lassa fever, so its presence does not confirm acute infection, which is better shown by antigen detection or reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction.
IgM does develop, the virus is immunogenic, molecular testing does not require maximum containment, and malaria cross-reaction is not the issue.
- MCQ
Within the arenaviruses, Lujo virus is best classified as:
- A. A New World clade B haemorrhagic fever virus
- B. An Old World virus, but a phylogenetic outlier
- C. A reptarenavirus of snakes
- D. Genetically almost identical to Lassa virus
- E. A core member of the New World Tacaribe serocomplex
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Lujo virus is broadly an Old World arenavirus but a marked phylogenetic outlier, its glycoprotein so divergent that it clusters with neither the Old World nor the New World complex.
It is not a New World, reptile or Tacaribe-complex virus, and despite an almost identical syndrome it is genetically distant from Lassa.
- MCQ
Zinkernagel and Doherty used LCMV in mice to establish which immunological principle?
- A. Clonal selection of antibody-producing B cells
- B. MHC restriction of T-cell recognition
- C. Antibody class switching
- D. The classical complement activation pathway
- E. Passive transfer of placental immunity
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Using LCMV, Zinkernagel and Doherty showed that cytotoxic T cells recognise viral antigen only alongside self-MHC molecules, the principle of MHC restriction, for which they received the Nobel Prize.
The other concepts were established in different systems.
SAQCompare the discovery and geographic distribution of Marburg virus and the ebolaviruses. [4]
Model answer
- Marburg virus was recognised first, in 1967, when laboratory workers in Marburg and Belgrade were infected by imported African monkeys.
- The ebolaviruses were recognised in 1976, in simultaneous outbreaks of the Zaire and Sudan species in central Africa.
- Distribution: both are confined to sub-Saharan Africa; Marburg spillover clusters around cave and mine exposure, while the ebolaviruses occur across the forest zones of central and West Africa, the Zaire species causing the largest outbreaks.
- Marburg virus disease and Ebola disease are otherwise clinically very similar.
SAQDefine ring vaccination and give two epidemiological rationales for its use in an Ebola outbreak. [3]
Model answer
Definition: ring vaccination immunises the contacts of a confirmed case, and their contacts in turn, forming a protective ring around each case rather than vaccinating the whole population.
- It targets those at highest risk, the people most likely to have been exposed, concentrating protection where transmission occurs.
- It uses limited vaccine efficiently, achieving outbreak control without the supply needed for mass vaccination.
SAQDefine viral haemorrhagic fever and list examples relevant to Africa. [4]
Model answer
Viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF) is a clinical syndrome, not a single disease, caused by unrelated enveloped RNA viruses that produce fever with increased vascular permeability, coagulopathy and, in severe cases, shock and multi-organ failure. Almost all are zoonotic.
Examples relevant to Africa:
- Filoviruses: Ebola (Zaire, Sudan, Bundibugyo) and Marburg.
- Arenaviruses: Lassa (West Africa) and Lujo (southern Africa).
- Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever: tick-borne, endemic to southern Africa.
- Rift Valley fever: mosquito-borne and livestock-associated.
- Yellow fever: the severe flaviviral haemorrhagic fever.
SAQDescribe the composition, route of administration and cold-chain requirement of the Ervebo (rVSV-ZEBOV) vaccine. [3]
Model answer
- Composition: a live recombinant vesicular stomatitis virus engineered to carry the Zaire ebolavirus glycoprotein, given as a single dose.
- Route: intramuscular injection.
- Cold chain: it requires ultra-cold storage, at around minus 60 to minus 80 degrees Celsius, which complicates field deployment.
SAQDetail four clinical or laboratory features that herald the haemorrhagic phase of Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever. [4]
Model answer
- Petechiae and large ecchymoses: cutaneous and mucosal bleeding, with ecchymoses especially characteristic of Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever.
- Mucosal bleeding: epistaxis, gingival bleeding, haematemesis or melaena.
- Thrombocytopenia: a falling and often markedly low platelet count.
- Deranged coagulation: prolonged prothrombin and partial thromboplastin times with raised fibrin degradation products, indicating disseminated intravascular coagulation.
SAQDetail four structural or procedural containment features of a biosafety level 4 (BSL-4) laboratory required for processing suspected filovirus specimens. [4]
Model answer
- Positive-pressure suit or class III cabinet: staff work in a self-contained, air-supplied suit, or through a sealed glove-box cabinet.
- Airlocked entry and exit: controlled access through sealed doors with a chemical shower on exit.
- Dedicated air handling: directional inward airflow with high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filtration of exhaust.
- Effluent and waste decontamination: liquid effluent and solid waste are treated before leaving the facility.
SAQDifferentiate the criteria for classifying a suspected viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF) patient as moderate risk versus high risk. [4]
Model answer
- Moderate risk: a VHF-compatible febrile illness with a rural or tropical exposure, or contact with animals, ticks or mosquitoes, or an indirect link to a VHF case, but no direct contact with a case and no bleeding.
- High risk: a patient either severely ill with fever and haemorrhage, or with a definite VHF exposure, such as a health worker who falls ill within the incubation window of caring for a confirmed case, or a close contact of a known case.
SAQIdentify four high-risk exposure groups for Ebola virus transmission and describe the mechanism of acquisition for each. [4]
Model answer
- Healthcare workers: contact with a patient’s blood and body fluids without adequate infection control.
- Family carers and funeral attendees: contact with the body during care and traditional burial washing.
- Hunters and people handling wildlife: contact with infected bats, primates or forest antelope through the bushmeat trade.
- Sexual partners of survivors: exposure to virus persisting in semen after recovery.
SAQIdentify the viral families and primary transmission routes of the two principal endemic causes of viral haemorrhagic fever in South Africa. [4]
Model answer
- Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever: family Nairoviridae (order Bunyavirales); transmitted by Hyalomma tick bite and by contact with the blood and tissues of infected livestock at slaughter.
- Rift Valley fever: family Phenuiviridae (order Bunyavirales); transmitted by mosquito bite and by contact with the blood, tissues and fluids of infected livestock.
SAQList three severe complications of Rift Valley fever and indicate which is most often associated with permanent morbidity. [4]
Model answer
- Retinitis and retinal vasculitis: the complication most often associated with permanent morbidity, since macular involvement can cause lasting loss of central vision.
- Meningoencephalitis: a late, immune-mediated neurological complication.
- Haemorrhagic and hepatic disease: jaundice, bleeding and hepatic necrosis, carrying the highest mortality.
SAQOutline the immediate management of a high-risk occupational exposure to Ebola virus, including the critical timeframe for intervention. [5]
Model answer
- Immediate first aid: wash a contaminated skin wound with soap and water, encouraging bleeding, and irrigate exposed mucous membranes with water or saline.
- Report and risk-assess: notify occupational health and the reference laboratory at once for a risk assessment.
- Post-exposure vaccination: for a genuine high-risk Zaire ebolavirus exposure, the rVSV-ZEBOV vaccine is offered as soon as possible, since its benefit depends on early administration.
- Monitoring: record temperature twice daily for 21 days from the exposure, isolating and managing as a suspected case if fever or symptoms develop.
SAQState the current World Health Organization (WHO) position on use of the rVSV-ZEBOV (Ervebo) vaccine in pregnant and breastfeeding women during an Ebola outbreak. [2]
Model answer
Current WHO guidance recommends offering Ervebo to pregnant and breastfeeding women in areas with an active Ebola outbreak, with informed consent and after weighing the woman’s risk of exposure. This reverses the earlier practice of excluding them, which had been criticised for denying protection to a high-risk group.
SAQState the primary safety concern that precludes the use of current veterinary live-attenuated Rift Valley fever vaccines in humans. [2]
Model answer
The live-attenuated veterinary vaccines retain residual virulence: they are teratogenic and abortigenic in pregnant livestock and carry a risk of reversion, so they are not considered safe for human use. Inactivated preparations exist for limited occupational human use but are less immunogenic and need repeated dosing.
Exam-styleCompare the diagnostic utility and biosafety requirements of virus isolation versus molecular assays during the first three days of acute Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever. [8]
Model answer
A complete answer contrasts the two approaches on speed, safety and yield in early disease.
Molecular assays (RT-PCR). In the first days of illness viraemia is high, so reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction is sensitive and rapid and is the method of choice. It can be run on chemically inactivated samples, which lowers the biosafety hazard, so validated molecular testing need not require maximum containment.
Virus isolation. Culture is sensitive during early viraemia but slow, and it amplifies live virus, so it demands biosafety level 4 containment and is confined to reference laboratories.
In practice RT-PCR gives the early answer safely, while isolation is reserved for characterisation under maximum containment.
Exam-styleCompare the pathogenesis of Ebola virus disease and Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever. [6]
Model answer
A complete answer covers the shared VHF mechanism and the points of difference in tropism, immune response and bleeding.
Shared mechanism. Both first replicate in monocytes, macrophages and dendritic cells, suppress the type I interferon response, and drive a pro-inflammatory cytokine response that raises vascular permeability and activates coagulation, producing capillary leak and disseminated intravascular coagulation.
Ebola. Broad cell tropism, including endothelium, hepatocytes and adrenal cortex, causes widespread tissue destruction; the viral glycoprotein can disrupt endothelium directly, and failure of both humoral and cellular immunity marks fatal cases, so the picture resembles septic shock.
Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever. Prominent hepatic involvement and endothelial infection with a marked coagulopathy; large ecchymoses are characteristic, and disseminated intravascular coagulation is often severe.
Both spread person to person through blood and body fluids and have caused nosocomial outbreaks.
Exam-styleDescribe the laboratory biosafety considerations in a suspected viral haemorrhagic fever case. [8]
Model answer
A complete answer covers the containment level, what may be done on site, and how specimens are handled and moved.
Containment. Confirmatory testing is done only at the national reference laboratory, the sole biosafety level 4 facility in Africa; live-virus work is confined there.
On-site testing. The managing laboratory may run the essential tests to exclude other diagnoses and monitor the patient, but any aerosol-generating step is done inside a biosafety cabinet, under enhanced personal protective equipment, by a small team of experienced staff, and clinically essential tests are never withheld.
Specimen handling and transport. Specimens are Category A infectious substances, triple-packaged to UN2814 under International Air Transport Association (IATA) packing instruction 620, kept cold and not frozen, and dispatched only after prior consultation with the reference laboratory.
Inactivation. Molecular assays run on chemically inactivated samples allow safe testing at lower containment.
Exam-styleExplain the infection prevention and control measures required when managing a suspected viral haemorrhagic fever case. [8]
Model answer
A complete answer covers isolation, protective equipment, decontamination, and the handling of contacts and the deceased.
Isolation. Isolate the patient in a room with an ante-room for donning and doffing protective equipment; negative-pressure ventilation is not required, as standard isolation has proven adequate in South African practice.
Personal protective equipment. A gown or coverall, a plastic apron, an N95 respirator, eye protection, a double pair of gloves and boot covers, put on and removed with a trained partner watching.
Decontamination. Chlorine at 0.5% for spills, body fluids and surfaces, and 0.05% for skin and lightly soiled items, made up fresh daily.
Contacts and the deceased. Contacts are placed under active observation; a body is disinfected, double-bagged and refrigerated pending diagnosis; and staff exposures are logged and monitored.
Exam-styleExplain the pathogenesis of late-stage Rift Valley fever complications, such as meningoencephalitis, in relation to viraemia and the host immune response. [6]
Model answer
A complete answer links the timing of the complication to the fall in viraemia and the rising immune response.
Acute phase. Most infections are self-limited, with high viraemia cleared within a few days as antibody appears.
Late complications. In a minority, neurological disease appears in the second week, after viraemia has fallen and antibody is rising, which points to an immune-mediated rather than a directly cytolytic mechanism. Retinal vasculitis follows the same pattern, coinciding with the strongest antibody response.
Contrast. This differs from the fulminant haemorrhagic form, in which a defective immune response allows persistent viraemia and direct viral injury with hepatic necrosis.
Exam-styleOutline the clinical approach to a patient with suspected viral haemorrhagic fever. [6]
Model answer
A complete answer covers the exposure history, the differential, isolation and safe diagnosis.
Exposure history. Ask about travel to or from an endemic area in the previous 21 days, contact with animals, ticks, ill people or funerals, and healthcare or laboratory work.
Differential diagnosis. Malaria is far more likely in a febrile returning traveller and must be actively excluded, along with typhoid and other bacterial sepsis; the two can coexist.
Isolation. Once VHF is plausible, isolate the patient and apply barrier precautions before confirmation, because the risk to others is greatest in the undiagnosed phase.
Diagnosis. Seek advice before sampling; reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) on blood is the primary test, and specimens must be packaged and transported safely to a laboratory equipped for the required biosafety level.
Supportive care. Attend to circulating volume and electrolytes, and avoid non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, aspirin and corticosteroids.
Exam-styleOutline the laboratory diagnostic approach to a suspected acute Marburg virus infection in South Africa, specifying the biosafety level and the notification category. [8]
Model answer
A complete answer covers the tests, where they are done, the biosafety level and notification.
Tests. Acute infection is confirmed by reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction for viral genome and by antigen detection, with serology (fluorescent antibody test and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) for antibody; an early negative is backed by a convalescent sample because culture can still turn positive later.
Where and at what biosafety level. Confirmatory testing is done only at the National Institute for Communicable Diseases (NICD) reference laboratory at biosafety level 4, after prior consultation; the referring laboratory sends one clotted and one EDTA tube with the case investigation form under Category A packaging.
Notification. Marburg is notified as a Category 1 Notifiable Medical Condition through the application, alongside the hotline call.