Questions
Viral CNS Infections — Questions
Study questions for the Viral CNS Infections topic — exam-style, clinical-scenario and FAQ.
Mock Exam mode
Sit this set one question at a time. Multiple-choice questions mark themselves; written questions reveal a tickable mark scheme so you can score your own answer. You get a combined score at the end.
87 questions: 69 MCQ, 18 written.
- High priorityMCQ
JC virus enters glial cells using which molecule as co-receptor?
- A. The CD4 glycoprotein
- B. The nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
- C. The serotonin 5-HT2A receptor
- D. The complement receptor CR2
- E. The epidermal growth factor receptor
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Why C
JC virus attaches to a sialylated glycan and depends on the serotonin 5-HT2A receptor, expressed on glial cells, to enter; this helps explain its tropism for the brain and underlies the trial of serotonin antagonists such as mirtazapine. CD4 is the HIV receptor, the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor is used by rabies virus, CR2 by Epstein-Barr virus, and the epidermal growth factor receptor by other viruses.
- High priorityMCQ
VZV cerebral vasculopathy is suspected but cerebrospinal fluid PCR is negative. Which is the most useful next test?
- A. Repeat the same cerebrospinal fluid PCR
- B. Serum varicella immunoglobulin M
- C. Blood viral load by quantitative PCR
- D. Skin biopsy of the nearest dermatome
- E. Intrathecal anti-VZV immunoglobulin G
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Cerebrospinal fluid PCR is positive in only about 30% of cases of VZV vasculopathy, so a negative result does not exclude it. Demonstrating intrathecal synthesis of anti-VZV immunoglobulin G is the more sensitive approach, and the same principle applies to other rash-free neurological presentations of the virus.
- High priorityMCQ
Which option correctly pairs a herpes simplex virus with its principal site of latency?
- A. HSV-1: sacral ganglia
- B. HSV-2: trigeminal ganglion
- C. HSV-1: trigeminal ganglion
- D. HSV-2: olfactory bulb
- E. HSV-1: anterior horn cells
Show answer
Correct answer: C
HSV-1 establishes latency chiefly in the trigeminal ganglion, the source of recurrent orolabial herpes, while HSV-2 favours the sacral ganglia.
The other options invert or invent the site: HSV-2 latency is sacral rather than trigeminal or in the olfactory bulb, and HSV does not reside in anterior horn cells as its principal reservoir.
High priorityClinical scenarioA 28-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of headache, photophobia and neck stiffness, alongside painful genital ulcers. Cerebrospinal fluid shows a lymphocytic pleocytosis with normal glucose and mildly raised protein, and the cerebrospinal-fluid HSV-2 PCR is positive. (a) Interpret the cerebrospinal-fluid and PCR result. [2] (b) What is the syndrome, and how does it relate to genital HSV? [2] (c) Outline management. [3]
Model answer
a. The picture is a viral (aseptic) meningitis: a lymphocytic pleocytosis with normal glucose and mildly raised protein, and a positive herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2) PCR (polymerase chain reaction) confirms HSV-2 as the cause.
b. This is HSV-2 aseptic meningitis, which commonly accompanies a primary genital HSV-2 infection (in up to a quarter of affected women). When such episodes recur over time the condition is called Mollaret meningitis.
c. Supportive care with analgesia; intravenous aciclovir for a severe presentation, stepping down to oral valaciclovir to complete a course of about 10 to 14 days; and counselling about genital HSV and recurrence. The prognosis is good and the illness self-limiting, unlike HSV-1 encephalitis.
High priorityClinical scenarioA patient with highly active relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis is treated with natalizumab. Outline how the risk of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy is stratified, monitored and managed.
Model answer
Natalizumab blocks lymphocyte entry into the brain, removing the immune surveillance that contains JC virus, so PML is its defining hazard.
Risk stratification
Three factors set the risk. The serum JC virus antibody index: seronegative patients are at low risk, while a high index (conventionally above about 1.5) marks substantially higher risk. Prior use of immunosuppressant drugs raises risk further. So does duration of treatment, with risk climbing markedly beyond about two years. A patient who is seropositive with a high index, has had previous immunosuppression and has been treated for several years sits in the highest-risk group.
Monitoring
Seronegative patients are retested periodically, because seroconversion on therapy raises their risk. Higher-risk patients undergo more frequent magnetic resonance surveillance, every few months rather than annually, to detect early or presymptomatic lesions, since outcome is far better when PML is caught before it becomes symptomatic.
Management if PML develops
Stop natalizumab and accelerate its clearance with plasma exchange or immunoadsorption to restore normal lymphocyte trafficking. There is no specific antiviral. Restoring immune surveillance almost inevitably provokes an immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome, which is then managed in its own right, with corticosteroids reserved for severe inflammation with raised intracranial pressure.
High prioritySAQDescribe how a melt curve is produced in real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and at what stage. Why do the melt curves of HSV-1 and HSV-2 differ, and how is this useful? [6]
Model answer
- How and when it is produced: after amplification is complete, the product is heated gradually while fluorescence from a double-stranded-DNA-binding dye (or probe) is monitored. As the duplex denatures, fluorescence falls steeply at the melting temperature (Tm); plotting the negative first derivative of fluorescence against temperature gives a peak at the Tm. It is a post-amplification step.
- Why HSV-1 and HSV-2 differ: their amplicons differ in sequence and guanine-and-cytosine content, so they melt at different temperatures and give distinct peaks.
- Why it is useful: it allows single-tube typing of HSV-1 versus HSV-2 without separate probes or gels, detects mixed infection, and confirms that the signal is the specific amplicon rather than primer-dimer or non-specific product.
High prioritySAQDescribe the pathogenesis of herpes simplex encephalitis. [6]
Model answer
Cause. Almost always herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1). It follows either a primary infection or, more often, reactivation of latent virus.
Route to the brain. Virus reaches the central nervous system along the trigeminal or olfactory nerve pathways, seeding the medial temporal lobes and orbitofrontal cortex.
Localisation. The characteristic, usually unilateral, involvement of the temporal lobe gives the typical clinical and imaging picture.
Mechanism of injury. Lytic infection of neurons and glia provokes intense inflammation, producing a haemorrhagic, necrotising encephalitis with oedema and raised intracranial pressure.
Host susceptibility. Inborn errors of the Toll-like receptor 3 (TLR3) interferon pathway (TLR3, UNC93B1, TRIF, TBK1) impair control of HSV in the central nervous system and predispose, especially in children.
Consequences. Untreated mortality exceeds 70%, and survivors often have memory, language and behavioural deficits. A post-infectious anti-N-methyl-D-aspartate (anti-NMDA) receptor autoimmune encephalitis can follow weeks later.
High prioritySAQWrite short notes on Mollaret meningitis: aetiology, clinical features, cerebrospinal-fluid findings, and management. [6]
Model answer
- Aetiology: a benign recurrent lymphocytic (aseptic) meningitis, usually caused by herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2) (occasionally HSV-1).
- Clinical features: repeated, self-limiting episodes of meningitis (headache, fever, neck stiffness) over months to years, each resolving spontaneously over a few days; large activated mononuclear “Mollaret cells” were the historical hallmark.
- Cerebrospinal-fluid findings: lymphocytic pleocytosis, raised protein and normal glucose, with HSV-2 DNA detectable by PCR (polymerase chain reaction) during an attack.
- Management: episodes are self-limiting; aciclovir or valaciclovir is used for severe acute attacks. The benefit of long-term suppressive therapy is uncertain and not clearly established.
High priorityExam-styleDescribe the pathogenesis of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy. [5]
Model answer
PML is a directly cytopathic disease that emerges only when cellular immunity fails.
Reactivation under immunosuppression
Most adults carry JC virus as a lifelong, low-level persistent infection of the kidney and lymphoid tissue, controlled by T-cell immunity. PML is reactivation of this infection, not a new one: almost all patients are already seropositive, and disease appears only with profound immunosuppression, classically advanced HIV with a low CD4 count or treatment with agents such as natalizumab. Loss of JC-virus-specific CD8 cytotoxic T cells is the decisive failure.
Reaching and damaging the brain
Two molecular changes license neurovirulence: rearrangement of the non-coding control region from the urinary archetype to the disease-associated prototype, which raises replication in glial cells, and mutation of the VP1 receptor-binding site favouring the serotonin 5-HT2A receptor on glia. Infected B-lineage cells are thought to carry the virus across the blood-brain barrier. There it replicates lytically in oligodendrocytes, the myelin-producing cells. Because each oligodendrocyte myelinates many axons, their destruction produces expanding, coalescing demyelination of the subcortical white matter, with the histological triad of enlarged oligodendrocyte nuclei, bizarre reactive astrocytes and foamy macrophages, and little inflammation until immune reconstitution supervenes.
High priorityExam-styleDiscuss the pathogenesis and clinical presentation of HTLV-1-associated myelopathy / tropical spastic paraparesis (HAM/TSP). What is the significance of an extensor plantar response in these patients? [6]
Model answer
A complete answer covers the immune-mediated mechanism, the clinical syndrome, and why the extensor plantar response localises the lesion.
Pathogenesis. HAM/TSP is an immune-mediated inflammatory myelopathy, not a direct cytopathic infection. A high proviral load drives persistent expression of viral antigen in circulating infected T-cell clones, and a vigorous but ineffective cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response to these cells provokes chronic inflammation. Cytokine-mediated injury and lymphocytic infiltration fall on the thoracic spinal cord, producing demyelination and axonal loss in the lateral corticospinal tracts.
Clinical presentation. A slowly progressive spastic paraparesis of the lower limbs, with upper motor neuron signs (spasticity, brisk reflexes, clonus), bladder and sphincter dysfunction, sensory disturbance and low back pain. It is commoner in women, is chronic and disabling, and is not malignant.
Significance of the extensor plantar response. A bilateral extensor plantar (positive Babinski sign) is an upper motor neuron sign. It confirms the lesion is in the corticospinal tracts of the cord rather than in the lower motor neurons or peripheral nerves, consistent with a myelopathy, and supports the clinical picture of a spastic rather than flaccid paraparesis.
High priorityExam-styleDiscuss the pathogenesis of viral infections leading to encephalitis. [6]
Model answer
A complete answer traces how a virus reaches the central nervous system, how it crosses into it, and how it injures it.
Reaching the central nervous system. Most encephalitic viruses arrive through the blood, after a primary infection and viraemia seed the cerebral vasculature. Two haematogenous routes exist: virus in the vessels of the meninges or choroid plexus crosses into the cerebrospinal fluid and infects the ependyma and underlying brain, or virus crosses the blood-brain barrier directly. It may infect the endothelium, be carried across inside infected leukocytes (as with the human immunodeficiency virus, HIV, and measles), or, as with West Nile virus, exploit a barrier made leaky by inflammatory cytokines. The alternative is the neural route: retrograde axonal transport along peripheral nerves, used by rabies virus and, on reactivation, by herpes simplex and varicella-zoster virus.
Injuring the brain. Disease arises from direct neuronal infection and from the immune response to it. The histological hallmarks are neuronal necrosis, neuronophagia (engulfment of dying neurons), and perivascular cuffing by mononuclear cells, the last reflecting the immune response itself. The balance of direct and immune-mediated injury varies: rabies virus is barely cytopathic yet uniformly lethal through functional neuronal failure, herpes simplex produces necrotising temporal-lobe damage, and in others the immune infiltrate drives much of the harm.
Outcome depends on the virus, the region infected, and the vigour and timing of the immune response, which is also why oedema in the closed cranial compartment is so dangerous.
High priorityExam-styleDiscuss the role of the virology laboratory in the diagnosis of a case of probable progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy. [10]
Model answer
A complete answer links each laboratory test to the clinical and radiological picture, since the diagnosis is made on the combination rather than on any single result.
Cerebrospinal fluid JC virus PCR
The central test is detection of JC virus DNA in cerebrospinal fluid by polymerase chain reaction. In a patient with compatible neurology and characteristic imaging, a positive result confirms the diagnosis (laboratory-confirmed PML) and removes the need for brain biopsy. Detection in the cerebrospinal fluid is meaningful because the virus is not normally present there, unlike urine and blood, where asymptomatic shedding is common. Quantification is useful for monitoring. The key limitation is sensitivity: the assay misses roughly a quarter of histologically proven cases, particularly at low viral load or after antiretroviral therapy has reduced it, so a negative result does not exclude PML. Routine cerebrospinal fluid is usually otherwise normal, which helps separate PML from the meningoencephalitides that produce a pleocytosis.
When the PCR is non-informative
Where the result is negative but suspicion persists, the options are to repeat the test, to measure an intrathecal anti-JC virus antibody response, or to proceed to stereotactic brain biopsy. Biopsy remains the definitive test, showing the histological triad of demyelination, enlarged oligodendrocyte nuclei and bizarre astrocytes, with confirmation by viral protein on immunohistochemistry or viral genome by in situ hybridisation.
Putting it together
The laboratory does not diagnose PML in isolation: it supplies the virological confirmation that, set against the clinical syndrome and the magnetic resonance imaging appearance, allows the case to be graded as possible, probable or laboratory-confirmed. The serum JC virus antibody index has no role in diagnosing an established case; it is a risk-stratification tool in the natalizumab setting.
High priorityExam-styleWhat are the complications of varicella-zoster virus infection, and which groups are at greatest risk?
Model answer
A complete answer spans the complications of primary varicella and of zoster, and notes that severity concentrates where cell-mediated immunity is immature or failing.
Skin and soft tissue
- Secondary bacterial infection, the commonest, from group A streptococci and Staphylococcus aureus, occasionally reaching necrotising fasciitis.
- Haemorrhagic varicella, around days 2 to 3 of the rash, with epistaxis, melaena or haematuria, mainly in the immunocompromised.
Pulmonary
- Varicella pneumonia, the leading cause of varicella death, affecting ~1 in 200 adults and far fewer children, typically 1 to 6 days after the rash; greatly increased in the immunocompromised and in pregnancy.
Neurological
- Cerebellar ataxia, benign and self-limiting, and the more serious encephalitis (~3 to 4 per 100,000), some 4 to 8 days after the rash.
- Guillain–Barré syndrome, and after zoster, postherpetic neuralgia.
Ocular
- Keratitis, uveitis, iritis and retinitis, mainly with zoster ophthalmicus and threatening sight; progressive outer retinal necrosis occurs in advanced HIV.
Other
- Reye syndrome if aspirin is given, and disseminated disease with visceral involvement in the immunocompromised.
Greatest severity falls on neonates, pregnant women, adults and the immunocompromised.
High priorityExam-styleWhat is the significance of a JC virus PCR-positive result on cerebrospinal fluid?
Model answer
The result is meaningful precisely because the site is privileged.
A positive result signifies central nervous system disease
JC virus is not normally present in cerebrospinal fluid, unlike urine and blood, where most healthy adults shed or harbour the virus without consequence. Detection of JC virus DNA in the cerebrospinal fluid therefore indicates replication within the central nervous system rather than incidental persistence. In a patient with a compatible clinical picture and characteristic magnetic resonance imaging, a positive PCR confirms the diagnosis as laboratory-confirmed PML and removes the need for brain biopsy. Viral load can be quantified to support monitoring.
Interpret with the clinical and radiological context
The result is read together with the syndrome and the imaging, not alone. A positive PCR without compatible clinical or radiological features should prompt review rather than an immediate diagnosis. The converse caveat also matters: because the assay misses about a quarter of proven cases, a negative result does not exclude PML, so the positive result is the more decisive of the two.
High priorityExam-styleWrite short notes on prion strains. [6]
Model answer
A complete answer defines what a prion strain is, explains how distinct strains can exist in an agent that carries no genome, and notes the supporting evidence and clinical relevance.
Definition. A prion strain is a distinct, stably transmissible prion phenotype, recognised by a reproducible combination of incubation period, clinical signs and neuropathological lesion profile (the distribution and severity of spongiform change). Strains behave this way despite an identical prion protein (PrP) amino acid sequence in the host, which is the central puzzle they pose.
Structural basis. Because the agent has no nucleic acid, strain information is held in the conformation of the misfolded protein, the scrapie-type prion protein (PrP-Sc), itself. Strains differ in their folding, in the ratio of the di-, mono- and un-glycosylated bands, and in the size of the protease-resistant core fragment. These are read out by Western blot glycoform and fragment typing (for example type 1 versus type 2), which, combined with the codon 129 genotype, defines the molecular subtypes of sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (such as MM1 and VV2).
Evidence. Serial transmission into inbred mice of identical prion gene (PRNP) genotype reproduces each strain’s incubation time and lesion profile, showing the phenotype is a property of the agent and not the host. Strain also governs the species barrier: the bovine spongiform encephalopathy agent and variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease share the same strain signature, which is how the cattle-to-human link was established.
Clinical relevance. Strain, together with the codon 129 polymorphism, predicts the incubation period, clinical picture and lesion distribution, and underlies the molecular classification of human prion disease.
High priorityExam-styleWrite short notes on the epidemiology and diagnosis of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE). [10]
Model answer
Epidemiology
SSPE is a rare, delayed, invariably fatal complication of measles caused by persistent CNS infection with defective measles virus.
- Incidence: historically quoted as ~1 in 10,000 measles cases; NEJM 2025 cites 7–11 per 100,000 cases, and recent surveillance suggests it may be more common than previously estimated (Wendorf et al., 2017).
- Latent period: typically 6–10 years after primary infection (range 1 to >30 years).
- Major risk factor: measles infection at <2 years of age — the immature immune response permits establishment of persistent CNS infection.
- Host: previously immunocompetent individuals — contrast with MIBE, which occurs in the immunocompromised.
- Outcome: progressive, with periodic remissions; death within 1–3 years of onset in most patients.
- Public-health pattern: SSPE incidence falls as measles is suppressed by vaccination, and rises 5–10 years after major measles outbreaks — vaccination is the only meaningful prevention.
Clinical course
Insidious onset over months, progressing through four stages:
- Subtle behavioural changes — personality change, declining school performance.
- Motor signs — awkwardness, stumbling, then myoclonic jerks and seizures.
- Progressive cortical decline — ataxia, dementia, extrapyramidal signs (choreoathetosis, dystonic posturing).
- Late — visual loss (chorioretinitis, optic atrophy, cortical blindness), spasticity, coma.
Diagnosis — the classic triad
- Clinical — gradual, progressive behavioural change, myoclonus, dementia, visual disturbance, and pyramidal/extrapyramidal signs.
- EEG — periodic high-amplitude slow-wave complexes (Radermecker complexes) at 4–20 second intervals, typically synchronised with myoclonus.
- CSF measles-specific antibody — exceptionally high MeV-specific IgG, with oligoclonal bands on electrophoresis, and a markedly elevated CSF:serum MeV antibody ratio indicating intrathecal synthesis.
Supporting investigations: MRI shows progressive white-matter abnormalities and later cortical atrophy. Brain biopsy (rarely needed) shows diffuse encephalitis with intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies. RT-PCR may detect MeV RNA but is unreliable.
Pathology. Diffuse encephalitis of grey and white matter with perivascular cuffing, lymphocytic infiltration, microglial proliferation, and patchy demyelination. Inclusion bodies contain MeV ribonucleocapsids; infectious virus cannot be recovered — the defective MeV in SSPE brains has mutations throughout the genome, especially in the M, H and F genes, preventing virion assembly.
Differential
Other progressive encephalopathies: prion disease (CJD), HIV encephalopathy, autoimmune encephalitis, leukodystrophies.
High priorityExam-styleYou are introducing a new nucleic-acid amplification test for HSV-1 and HSV-2 DNA in cerebrospinal fluid and other specimens, to replace an existing assay. What characteristics would make the new assay superior, and how would you evaluate its suitability on paper and in practice? [20]
Model answer
A complete answer covers what makes one molecular assay better than another, then how that claim is checked first from documentation and then on local samples.
Characteristics of a superior assay
- Higher analytical sensitivity (a lower limit of detection), which matters greatly in cerebrospinal fluid where viral loads are low.
- High specificity with detection and typing of both HSV-1 and HSV-2, ideally as part of a syndromic multiplex panel.
- Built-in controls: an internal extraction and amplification control to flag inhibition or failed extraction.
- Validated across the required specimen types (cerebrospinal fluid, genital and mucocutaneous swabs, blood) and robust to inhibitors such as blood in cerebrospinal fluid.
- Operational advantages: faster turnaround, automation, higher throughput, lower cost per test, and ease of use.
Evaluation on paper
- Review the manufacturer’s validation data, regulatory approvals and independent peer-reviewed evaluations.
- Examine the stated limit of detection, analytical sensitivity and specificity, linearity, reproducibility and cross-reactivity, and compare them against the current assay.
Evaluation in practice
- Method comparison against the current assay or reference standard on local samples, reporting concordance, sensitivity, specificity and an agreement statistic such as Cohen’s kappa.
- Verify the limit of detection with dilution panels, and assess precision within and between runs.
- Run external quality assessment and proficiency panels.
- Assess the practical fit: workflow, turnaround, cost, training needs and likely clinical impact.
Decision
The new assay is adopted if it improves sensitivity, specificity, turnaround or cost without loss of accuracy, and is then kept under ongoing internal quality control and external quality assessment.
- MCQ
A characteristic severe manifestation of Far-Eastern tick-borne encephalitis is:
- A. Retinitis
- B. Ascending sensory neuropathy
- C. A haemorrhagic fever with hepatic necrosis
- D. Flaccid paralysis of the shoulder girdle and arms
- E. Isolated facial nerve palsy
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The Far-Eastern subtype has a predilection for the anterior horn cells of the cervical cord, producing a poliomyelitis-like flaccid paralysis of the shoulder girdle and arms.
Retinitis, a purely sensory neuropathy, a hepatic haemorrhagic fever and isolated facial palsy are not the characteristic pattern.
- MCQ
A child develops a demyelinating encephalomyelitis ten days after measles. The brain shows perivascular demyelination but no demonstrable virus. The mechanism is:
- A. Immune-mediated attack on myelin
- B. Direct measles replication in oligodendrocytes
- C. Reactivation of a latent herpesvirus
- D. Accumulation of misfolded prion protein
- E. A secondary bacterial meningitis
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Post-infectious encephalomyelitis, also called acute disseminated encephalomyelitis, appears one to two weeks after a systemic infection or, formerly, after vaccination. Its pathology is perivascular demyelination with no virus demonstrable in the brain, which is why it is an immune-mediated, probably autoimmune, attack on myelin rather than direct viral replication. Measles is its leading trigger worldwide, complicating roughly 1 in 1000 infections.
- MCQ
A patient has a one-sided facial palsy with painful vesicles in the ear canal and altered taste. Which best describes the lesion?
- A. Trigeminal zoster of the ophthalmic division
- B. Bell palsy unrelated to any virus
- C. Herpes simplex facial nerve neuritis
- D. VZV reactivation in the geniculate ganglion
- E. Bacterial otitis with a facial nerve palsy
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Ramsay Hunt syndrome is reactivation of VZV in the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve, producing an ipsilateral facial palsy with vesicles in the ear, sometimes with hearing loss and altered taste.
Ophthalmic-division zoster affects the eye and forehead rather than the ear and facial nerve, and a facial palsy without the characteristic vesicular rash and dermatomal distribution would not point to VZV.
- MCQ
A patient has herpes zoster of the ophthalmic division. Beyond the eye, which complication is notably increased?
- A. Chronic hepatitis with cirrhosis
- B. Cardiac conduction block
- C. Ischaemic stroke from VZV vasculopathy
- D. Membranous glomerulonephritis
- E. Sensorimotor peripheral polyneuropathy
Show answer
Correct answer: C
VZV cerebral vasculopathy, an inflammation of the cerebral arteries that follows reactivation, raises the risk of ischaemic and haemorrhagic stroke for months after an episode of zoster. The risk is particularly increased after herpes zoster ophthalmicus, rising around 4.5-fold.
- MCQ
A patient presents with fever, confusion and focal seizures, and herpes simplex encephalitis is suspected. What is the correct immediate management?
- A. Await PCR confirmation before starting treatment
- B. Start intravenous aciclovir empirically at once
- C. Start oral valaciclovir empirically
- D. Start intravenous ganciclovir empirically
- E. Start intravenous foscarnet empirically
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Herpes simplex encephalitis is a medical emergency, so intravenous aciclovir is started empirically the moment it is suspected, because delay worsens outcome and the drug is safe; the standard course is 10 mg/kg every 8 hours for 14 to 21 days.
Waiting for PCR loses critical time, oral therapy gives inadequate central nervous system levels, and ganciclovir and foscarnet are neither first-line for HSV nor free of greater toxicity.
- MCQ
A patient recovers from treated herpes simplex encephalitis, then relapses three weeks later with a fresh encephalitis. The most likely explanation is:
- A. Aciclovir-resistant herpes simplex virus
- B. A new primary herpes simplex infection
- C. Anti-NMDA-receptor autoimmune encephalitis
- D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
- E. Bacterial superinfection of the temporal lobe
Show answer
Correct answer: C
A proportion of patients develop antibodies to the N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor one to four weeks after herpes simplex encephalitis, producing a relapsing, immune-mediated encephalitis that complicates recovery. The clue is the biphasic course: improvement after treatment, then fresh deterioration. This is neither a failure of aciclovir nor a new infection (options A and B), and it follows rather than precedes the viral illness.
- MCQ
A patient with clinical and MRI features typical of PML has a negative cerebrospinal fluid JC virus PCR. The best interpretation is:
- A. PML is reliably excluded by the negative result
- B. PML is not excluded; the assay misses about a quarter of cases
- C. The white-matter lesions must be artefactual
- D. The diagnosis is instead BK virus encephalitis
- E. No repeat PCR, intrathecal antibody testing or brain biopsy is needed
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Why B
Cerebrospinal fluid JC virus PCR misses roughly a quarter of histologically proven cases, especially at low viral load, so a negative result does not exclude PML when the clinical and radiological picture is typical. The appropriate next steps are to repeat the PCR, consider an intrathecal antibody index, or proceed to brain biopsy, not to abandon the diagnosis.
- MCQ
A virus produces detectable cerebrospinal fluid changes in about half of all infections yet rarely causes lasting neurological harm. It is best described as:
- A. Highly neurovirulent but of low neuroinvasiveness
- B. Neuronotropic but not neuroinvasive
- C. Highly neuroinvasive but of low neurovirulence
- D. Of high neuroinvasiveness and high neurovirulence
- E. Of low neuroinvasiveness and low neurovirulence
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Neuroinvasiveness is the capacity to enter the nervous system and neurovirulence the capacity to harm it once there; their product is neurotropism. Mumps virus is the clearest example of high neuroinvasiveness with low neurovirulence: it reaches the meninges and alters the cerebrospinal fluid in about half of infections but seldom causes lasting damage. Herpes simplex virus is the opposite (option A), rarely invading but devastating when it does. The other combinations do not match the description.
- MCQ
After a tick bite, the usual incubation period of tick-borne encephalitis is:
- A. About 7 to 14 days
- B. A few hours
- C. 1 to 2 days
- D. 6 to 12 weeks
- E. Over 6 months
Show answer
Correct answer: A
The incubation period is about 7 to 14 days after a tick bite, and tends to be shorter after milk-borne infection.
The other intervals are too short or too long for tick-borne encephalitis.
- MCQ
Besides a tick bite, tick-borne encephalitis virus is notably acquired by which route?
- A. Sexual contact
- B. Unpasteurised dairy products
- C. Rodent excreta
- D. Respiratory droplets
- E. Contaminated water
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Tick-borne encephalitis can be acquired by drinking unpasteurised milk or dairy from an infected goat, sheep or cow, which sheds virus during its viraemia.
Sexual, respiratory, rodent-excreta and waterborne routes are not features of the virus.
- MCQ
Cerebrospinal fluid viral culture has been abandoned as the diagnostic test for herpes simplex encephalitis mainly because:
- A. It cross-reacts with varicella-zoster virus
- B. It is positive in only ~4% of cases
- C. It requires a brain-biopsy specimen
- D. It turns positive more slowly than serology
- E. It is positive too often to be specific
Show answer
Correct answer: B
In sporadic herpes simplex encephalitis only about 4% of cerebrospinal-fluid cultures are positive, so culture misses almost every case. Polymerase chain reaction on cerebrospinal fluid has replaced it, with a sensitivity above 95% and a specificity approaching 100%, and has removed the former reliance on brain biopsy (against option C). Culture neither cross-reacts with varicella-zoster virus nor over-detects the virus (options A and E).
- MCQ
Clusters of acute flaccid paralysis with anterior myelitis in regions that have eliminated poliovirus have been most closely linked to:
- A. Coxsackievirus B6
- B. Echovirus 30
- C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus
- D. JC polyomavirus
- E. Enterovirus D68
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Non-polio enteroviruses can invade the anterior horn of the spinal cord and cause an acute flaccid paralysis indistinguishable from poliomyelitis. Enterovirus D68 was implicated in the clusters of acute flaccid myelitis seen where poliovirus has been eliminated, for example in California in 2012 and 2013, and is unusual among enteroviruses in causing substantial morbidity. Such cases trigger acute-flaccid-paralysis surveillance to detect and exclude poliovirus.
- MCQ
Conversion of the normal prion protein to its disease-associated form involves a shift from:
- A. Beta-sheet to alpha-helix
- B. A glycosylated to a non-glycosylated form
- C. A membrane-bound to a secreted form
- D. A monomer to a covalently cross-linked dimer
- E. Alpha-helix to beta-sheet
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The cellular prion protein is predominantly alpha-helical. Disease arises when it refolds into a beta-sheet-rich, aggregation-prone and protease-resistant form, which then templates the conversion of further normal protein.
The defining change is in secondary structure, not the amino acid sequence, so the glycosylation, membrane-anchoring and dimerisation options all miss the point.
- MCQ
How are the equine encephalitis viruses usually diagnosed in a patient with encephalitis?
- A. Blood culture on standard bacteriological agar plates
- B. Antigen testing of a urine sample
- C. Serology, with IgM in serum and cerebrospinal fluid
- D. Electroencephalography on its own
- E. Skin biopsy of a rash
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Diagnosis rests on serology, with virus-specific IgM in serum and cerebrospinal fluid and a rising IgG on paired sera, because the viraemia is usually past by the time encephalitis appears; reverse-transcription PCR helps early, especially in Venezuelan infection.
Agar culture, urinary antigen, electroencephalography alone and skin biopsy are not the approach.
- MCQ
HTLV-1-associated myelopathy / tropical spastic paraparesis (HAM/TSP) is best described as which of the following?
- A. Acute flaccid paralysis
- B. Chronic sensorimotor neuropathy
- C. Demyelinating optic neuritis
- D. Chronic spastic paraparesis
- E. Progressive cerebellar ataxia
Show answer
Correct answer: D
HAM/TSP (human T-lymphotropic virus type 1 [HTLV-1]-associated myelopathy / tropical spastic paraparesis) is a slowly progressive inflammatory myelopathy. It presents as a spastic paraparesis with brisk reflexes, bladder dysfunction and back pain, driven by immune-mediated infiltration of the thoracic spinal cord.
It is not a flaccid or acute process, not a peripheral neuropathy, not an optic neuritis, and not a cerebellar syndrome.
- MCQ
In a patient with a rapidly progressive dementia, the diagnosis that most needs to be excluded because it is treatable is:
- A. Dementia with Lewy bodies
- B. Frontotemporal dementia
- C. Alzheimer's disease
- D. Progressive supranuclear palsy
- E. Autoimmune encephalitis
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The differential of a rapidly progressive dementia spans other neurodegenerative dementias, infection, vascular disease and tumours, but the priority is to identify the autoimmune and paraneoplastic limbic encephalitides, because they are treatable and must not be mistaken for an untreatable prion disease.
The other options are themselves untreatable neurodegenerative conditions.
- MCQ
In a patient with slowly progressive spastic paraparesis due to HTLV-1-associated myelopathy / tropical spastic paraparesis (HAM/TSP), bilateral extensor plantar responses indicate:
- A. Lower motor neuron damage in the peripheral nerves and roots
- B. Failure at the neuromuscular junction
- C. Degeneration of the cerebellar pathways
- D. A dorsal column sensory tract lesion
- E. Upper motor neuron damage in the corticospinal tracts
Show answer
Correct answer: E
An extensor plantar response (a positive Babinski sign), with hyperreflexia and clonus, is a sign of upper motor neuron damage and localises the lesion to the corticospinal tracts, the lateral funiculi of the thoracic cord that are the core casualty in HAM/TSP.
It separates this myelopathy from a lower motor neuron or peripheral-nerve process, which instead reduces tone and reflexes. The neuromuscular junction, cerebellum and dorsal columns produce different signs and none gives an extensor plantar response.
- MCQ
In highly endemic areas of Asia, clinical Japanese encephalitis falls mainly on which group, and why?
- A. The elderly, because of waning vaccine immunity
- B. Pregnant women, because of immune tolerance
- C. Travellers, because they lack any exposure
- D. Male farm workers, because of occupational bites
- E. Children, because most adults are already immune
Show answer
Correct answer: E
With a very high ratio of subclinical to clinical infection (on the order of 250 to 1), most people in endemic areas are infected and immune by adulthood, so clinical disease falls mainly on children.
The other groups are not the predominant affected population in highly endemic settings.
- MCQ
In Western equine encephalitis, severe disease is most likely in:
- A. Healthy young adults
- B. Infants
- C. Adolescents
- D. Middle-aged women
- E. People with prior immunity
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Western equine encephalitis is generally mild in adults but can be severe in infants, with seizures and a substantial risk of permanent brain damage in survivors.
The other groups are at lower risk.
- MCQ
Japanese encephalitis virus is the prototype of which serocomplex?
- A. The Japanese encephalitis serocomplex
- B. The dengue serocomplex
- C. The Spondweni group
- D. The tick-borne encephalitis serocomplex
- E. The yellow fever group
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Japanese encephalitis virus is the prototype of the Japanese encephalitis serocomplex, which also contains West Nile, St Louis encephalitis and Murray Valley encephalitis viruses, and shares their neurotropism.
Dengue, Spondweni (which holds Zika), tick-borne encephalitis and yellow fever form separate serogroups.
- MCQ
Madariaga virus is best described as:
- A. The live-attenuated laboratory-worker vaccine strain of Venezuelan virus
- B. A tick-borne relative within the group
- C. The reclassified South American Eastern virus, usually milder
- D. The single most virulent member of the complex
- E. Another name for Western equine encephalitis virus
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Madariaga virus is the species into which the South American strains formerly called Eastern equine encephalitis virus were reclassified, and it is generally much less virulent in people.
It is not a vaccine strain, not tick-borne, not the most virulent member, and not Western virus.
- MCQ
Most viruses that infect the central nervous system through the bloodstream reach it following:
- A. A high-titre secondary viraemia
- B. The primary viraemia, direct from the entry site
- C. Retrograde axonal transport along peripheral nerves
- D. Diffusion across an intact blood-brain barrier
- E. Replication within circulating red blood cells
Show answer
Correct answer: A
After crossing a body surface and replicating locally, a virus seeds the blood as a primary viraemia, then amplifies in highly vascular organs, above all the liver and spleen, to generate a sustained, high-titre secondary viraemia. It is this later wave that delivers virus across the vascular barrier into the central nervous system. Neuronal routes (option C) are used by only a few viruses, such as herpes simplex and rabies, and the blood-brain barrier in fact opposes entry rather than allowing diffusion (option D).
- MCQ
Nearly all cases of variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease have occurred in people who are:
- A. Methionine homozygous at PRNP codon 129
- B. Valine homozygous at PRNP codon 129
- C. Heterozygous at PRNP codon 129
- D. Carriers of the E200K mutation
- E. Homozygous for an octapeptide insertion
Show answer
Correct answer: A
A common PRNP polymorphism at codon 129 encodes either methionine or valine, and homozygosity predisposes to disease. All but one variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease case identified to date has occurred in methionine homozygotes, which is why the codon 129 genotype is determined in suspected cases.
E200K and octapeptide insertions cause genetic rather than variant disease, and heterozygosity is relatively protective.
- MCQ
On magnetic resonance imaging, the 'pulvinar sign' is characteristic of:
- A. Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
- B. Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
- C. Fatal familial insomnia
- D. Gerstmann-Sträussler-Scheinker disease
- E. Kuru
Show answer
Correct answer: B
On diffusion-weighted magnetic resonance imaging, sporadic disease shows cortical ribboning and high signal in the deep grey nuclei, whereas variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease shows a hyperintense posterior thalamus, the pulvinar sign.
This sign is uncommon in the other prion diseases listed.
- MCQ
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy differs from most viral encephalitides in that the responsible virus:
- A. Spreads by a mosquito vector
- B. Provokes no host immune response
- C. Replicates only within the meninges
- D. Infects oligodendrocytes, not neurons
- E. Is a misfolded prion protein, not a virus
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy is caused by reactivation of JC polyomavirus in advanced HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) infection or other immunosuppression. Unlike the neuronotropic viruses that kill neurons, JC virus infects oligodendrocytes and destroys them, demyelinating the white matter. It is a virus rather than a prion (option E), is not vector-borne (option A), and provokes an immune response, emerging chiefly when immunity fails (against option B).
- MCQ
Rabies virus reaches the central nervous system by:
- A. A high-titre secondary viraemia from the spleen
- B. Binding acetylcholine receptors, then axonal transport
- C. Carriage inside migrating leucocytes across the barrier
- D. Infection of the choroid-plexus endothelium
- E. Spread along the olfactory tract from the nasopharynx
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Rabies is the prototype of neuronal spread. The virus replicates at the inoculation site, binds acetylcholine receptors to enter peripheral nerve endings, and travels by axonal transport to the brainstem and limbic system, shielded from circulating immunity. Spread along the olfactory route (option E) is a feature of herpes simplex virus, not rabies, and rabies does not depend on a viraemia (option A).
- MCQ
Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease accounts for approximately what proportion of human prion disease?
- A. 5%
- B. 15%
- C. 50%
- D. 85%
- E. 99%
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Human prion disease is sporadic in about 85% of cases (almost all sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease), genetic in about 15% (autosomal dominant PRNP mutations), and acquired in a small and declining remainder (kuru, iatrogenic and variant disease).
Overall incidence is roughly one to one and a half cases per million people per year.
- MCQ
The classic biphasic course of tick-borne encephalitis (a febrile illness, a remission, then a neurological phase) is most typical of which subtypes?
- A. The Far-Eastern subtype only
- B. No subtype; the course is monophasic
- C. The European and Siberian subtypes
- D. Only laboratory-acquired cases
- E. Only milk-borne cases
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The European and Siberian subtypes classically run a biphasic course: a grippe-like first phase, a symptom-free remission, then in a minority a neurological second phase. The Far-Eastern subtype is usually monophasic, progressing straight into severe disease.
The course is not confined to laboratory-acquired or milk-borne cases.
- MCQ
The enzootic cycle of Eastern equine encephalitis virus involves:
- A. Passerine birds and Culiseta melanura in freshwater swamps
- B. Forest rodents and Culex (Melanoconion) mosquitoes in tropical swamps
- C. Horses and Psorophora floodwater mosquitoes
- D. Humans and Aedes aegypti in cities
- E. Ticks and swamp-dwelling deer
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Eastern equine encephalitis virus cycles between passerine birds and the mosquito Culiseta melanura in freshwater hardwood swamps of eastern North America, with less host-specific bridge vectors carrying it to people and horses.
The rodent cycle belongs to Venezuelan virus, and the other pairings are wrong.
- MCQ
The feature that most strongly suggests sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease over Alzheimer's disease is:
- A. Visual hallucinations and fluctuating attention
- B. Dementia over weeks to months, with myoclonus
- C. A symmetrical resting tremor and bradykinesia
- D. Early urinary incontinence and gait apraxia
- E. A relapsing and remitting course over years
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rapidly progressive dementia: cognitive decline over weeks to months, far faster than Alzheimer’s disease, with ataxia and, as it advances, myoclonus, ending in akinetic mutism. This tempo is the single most useful clinical clue.
The other options point to dementia with Lewy bodies, a parkinsonian disorder, normal-pressure hydrocephalus, and a relapsing demyelinating disease.
- MCQ
The incubation period of the equine encephalitis viruses is on the order of:
- A. Several hours
- B. 4 to 8 weeks
- C. 2 to 3 months
- D. 2 to 10 days
- E. Over 3 months
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The incubation period is about two to ten days, varying by virus, followed by a febrile prodrome that may progress to encephalitis.
The other intervals are far too short or too long.
- MCQ
The infectious agent in prion disease is best described as:
- A. A misfolded host protein
- B. A defective virus lacking a capsid
- C. A slow-replicating DNA virus
- D. A bacterial L-form
- E. An autoantibody against a neuronal protein
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Prions are not viruses or any conventional microbe but a misfolded, self-propagating form of the cellular prion protein. The agent contains no nucleic acid, which is why it resists nucleases and radiation and provokes no immune response, the protein-only hypothesis.
The distractors describe a virus, a bacterial variant and an autoantibody, none of which fit an agent that carries no genome and triggers no inflammation.
- MCQ
The mainstay of laboratory diagnosis of tick-borne encephalitis is:
- A. Virus isolation from cerebrospinal fluid
- B. IgM-capture ELISA on serum and cerebrospinal fluid
- C. Blood culture
- D. Tick identification alone
- E. Electroencephalography
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Diagnosis rests on serology, chiefly IgM-capture ELISA on serum and cerebrospinal fluid, with a fourfold titre rise in paired sera confirming; serum IgM can persist for several months.
Virus is rarely isolated once neurological disease has begun, and the other options are not diagnostic tests for the virus.
- MCQ
The most effective management of HIV-associated PML is to:
- A. Give high-dose intravenous aciclovir
- B. Administer intrathecal cidofovir with probenecid cover
- C. Start long-term high-dose corticosteroids
- D. Restore immune function with antiretroviral therapy
- E. Treat with oral mirtazapine alone
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Why D
There is no specific antiviral for JC virus; the single effective principle is to restore JC-virus-specific immunity, which in HIV means starting or optimising antiretroviral therapy. Aciclovir has no activity against polyomaviruses, cidofovir has not shown benefit, corticosteroids are reserved only for severe immune reconstitution inflammation, and mirtazapine is unproven and not a treatment in its own right.
- MCQ
The Parkinson-like movement disorder of Japanese encephalitis reflects a viral predilection for which brain region?
- A. The substantia nigra and basal ganglia
- B. The cerebellar vermis
- C. The occipital cortex
- D. The hippocampus
- E. The anterior pituitary
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Japanese encephalitis virus has a predilection for the deep grey matter, especially the substantia nigra and basal ganglia, producing extrapyramidal features and a Parkinson-like syndrome that often appears in convalescence.
The cerebellum, occipital cortex, hippocampus and pituitary are not the characteristic targets.
- MCQ
The principal vector of Japanese encephalitis virus is a mosquito that breeds chiefly in:
- A. Tree holes in forest canopy
- B. Rice paddies and ground pools (Culex tritaeniorhynchus)
- C. Domestic water containers (Aedes aegypti)
- D. Brackish coastal marsh
- E. Rodent burrows
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Culex tritaeniorhynchus, which breeds in rice paddies and other ground pools, is the principal vector, linking the disease to irrigated rice agriculture across Asia.
Tree-hole and container-breeding Aedes transmit yellow fever, dengue and Zika, not Japanese encephalitis.
- MCQ
The standard laboratory test for confirming Japanese encephalitis is:
- A. Blood culture for the virus
- B. Nucleic-acid testing of blood after two weeks
- C. IgM-capture ELISA on serum and cerebrospinal fluid
- D. Electroencephalography
- E. Brain biopsy
Show answer
Correct answer: C
IgM-capture ELISA on serum and cerebrospinal fluid is the standard test, with sensitivity approaching 100% when both are tested one to two weeks after onset; cerebrospinal-fluid IgM indicates central nervous system infection. Flavivirus cross-reactivity is the main limitation.
Virus is rarely isolated, blood is cleared early, and electroencephalography and biopsy are not confirmatory.
- MCQ
The typical presentation of Venezuelan equine encephalitis in humans is:
- A. A self-limited influenza-like illness, encephalitis in a minority
- B. An almost invariably fatal necrotising encephalitis
- C. A chronic destructive polyarthritis
- D. A viral haemorrhagic fever with heavy bleeding and circulatory shock
- E. An entirely asymptomatic infection in everyone
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Most people with Venezuelan equine encephalitis have a self-limited influenza-like febrile illness, and only a minority, mainly children, develop encephalitis.
It is not usually fatal, arthritic, haemorrhagic, or silent in everyone.
- MCQ
Tick-borne encephalitis virus is transmitted by which ticks?
- A. Ixodes ricinus and Ixodes persulcatus
- B. Amblyomma hebraeum
- C. Rhipicephalus (Boophilus) species
- D. Hyalomma marginatum
- E. Dermacentor andersoni
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Ixodes ricinus transmits tick-borne encephalitis in Europe and Ixodes persulcatus in Russia and Asia; Ixodes ricinus also transmits Lyme borreliosis, so co-infection can occur.
Hyalomma ticks transmit Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever, and the other genera are not the vectors of tick-borne encephalitis.
- MCQ
Transmission through blood transfusion has been documented for:
- A. Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
- B. Familial Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
- C. Gerstmann-Sträussler-Scheinker disease
- D. Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
- E. Fatal familial insomnia
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is lymphotropic, with prion protein in tonsil and appendix as well as brain, and has been transmitted by blood transfusion; this underlies the leucoreduction and donor-deferral measures applied to the blood supply.
Sporadic disease, by contrast, has not been shown to transmit by transfusion.
- MCQ
What drives large epidemics of Venezuelan equine encephalitis?
- A. Direct person-to-person respiratory droplet spread
- B. Amplification of an epizootic strain in horses
- C. Contaminated municipal water supplies
- D. The bite of forest-dwelling ticks
- E. Airborne spread between wild birds
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Epidemics arise when mutation of an enzootic strain produces a variant that replicates to high titre in horses, which then amplify the virus for floodwater mosquitoes to spread.
It is not spread person-to-person, through water, by ticks, or between birds.
- MCQ
What is the relevance of the equine encephalitis viruses to South African practice?
- A. They are a common cause of locally acquired viral encephalitis
- B. They are endemic across the central and interior plateau of the whole country
- C. They are transmitted by hard ticks found across South Africa
- D. They were eliminated locally by routine vaccination
- E. An imported differential in a traveller returning from the Americas
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The equine encephalitis viruses are New World agents not found in South Africa, so their relevance is as an imported differential in a traveller returning from the Americas.
The locally important alphaviruses are instead Sindbis, Middelburg and Ndumu; these viruses are not endemic, tick-borne, or locally eliminated.
- MCQ
What is the treatment for tick-borne encephalitis?
- A. Oral acyclovir
- B. Intravenous ribavirin
- C. Doxycycline
- D. A specific monoclonal antibody
- E. Supportive care, as there is no specific antiviral
Show answer
Correct answer: E
There is no specific antiviral for tick-borne encephalitis, so management is supportive, with neurological intensive care for severe encephalitis and attention to respiratory function where cervical-cord or bulbar involvement threatens breathing.
Acyclovir treats herpes simplex encephalitis and doxycycline treats the tick-borne bacterium of Lyme disease, neither of which is tick-borne encephalitis virus.
- MCQ
Which animal is the key amplifying host in the Japanese encephalitis transmission cycle?
- A. Wild non-human primates
- B. Horses
- C. Pigs
- D. Rodents
- E. Bats
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Pigs are the key amplifying host, developing a high viraemia and living close to people in rural Asia, while ardeid wading birds are natural maintenance hosts; humans and horses are dead-end hosts.
Primates, rodents and bats are not the amplifying hosts for Japanese encephalitis.
- MCQ
Which animals are the principal reservoir maintaining tick-borne encephalitis virus in nature?
- A. Pigs
- B. Wild birds
- C. Non-human primates
- D. Small rodents
- E. Cattle
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Small rodents are the principal reservoir, sustaining the cycle with Ixodes ticks, including through co-feeding between infected and uninfected ticks on the same host. Large mammals maintain the tick population but rarely transmit the virus.
Pigs, birds and primates are reservoirs for other flaviviruses, not for tick-borne encephalitis.
- MCQ
Which arboviral encephalitis carries the highest case-fatality in the Americas?
- A. Western equine encephalitis
- B. Venezuelan equine encephalitis
- C. West Nile encephalitis
- D. St Louis encephalitis
- E. Eastern equine encephalitis
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Eastern equine encephalitis has the highest case-fatality, of the order of 30% or more, with frequent severe neurological sequelae in survivors, especially children.
The others are considerably less lethal.
- MCQ
Which birds act as natural maintenance hosts for Japanese encephalitis virus?
- A. Domestic poultry
- B. Passerine songbirds
- C. Migratory waterfowl only
- D. Ardeid wading birds such as herons and egrets
- E. Birds play no part in the cycle
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Ardeid wading birds, such as herons and egrets, are the natural maintenance hosts, with pigs as the amplifying host that drives human exposure.
Poultry, songbirds and waterfowl are not the recognised maintenance hosts, and birds are integral to the cycle.
- MCQ
Which equine encephalitis virus is a natural recombinant?
- A. Eastern equine encephalitis virus
- B. Western equine encephalitis virus
- C. Venezuelan equine encephalitis virus
- D. Madariaga virus
- E. None of them is a recombinant
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Western equine encephalitis virus arose by recombination, its genome descended from an Eastern-equine-encephalitis-like ancestor with the structural genes of a Sindbis-like virus.
The others are not recombinants.
- MCQ
Which is true of the discovery of the equine encephalitis viruses?
- A. Western equine encephalitis virus was the first alphavirus cultured, in 1930
- B. They were first isolated from wild migratory birds trapped across Africa
- C. All three were first discovered after the year 2000
- D. They were first recovered from human cerebrospinal fluid samples
- E. Eastern equine encephalitis virus was fully characterised before the year 1900
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Western equine encephalitis virus, isolated from horse brains in California in 1930, was the first alphavirus ever grown in culture.
The three viruses were recovered from encephalitic horses in the Americas during the 1930s, not from African birds, not after 2000, and not before 1900.
- MCQ
Which is true of Western equine encephalitis?
- A. It remains the commonest arboviral encephalitis across the Americas
- B. It is transmitted mainly by Culiseta melanura
- C. Human disease has all but disappeared in North America
- D. It occurs only on the African continent
- E. It is spread by the bite of an infected tick
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Human Western equine encephalitis has all but vanished, with no North American case for many years, for reasons that appear ecological rather than a loss of virulence.
Its vector is Culex tarsalis, not Culiseta melanura; it is a New World, mosquito-borne virus.
- MCQ
Which method reliably inactivates prions on surgical instruments?
- A. Formalin fixation
- B. A standard autoclave cycle at 121°C
- C. 70% alcohol
- D. Sodium hydroxide, then autoclaving
- E. Ultraviolet irradiation
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Prions resist formalin, alcohol, ultraviolet and ionising radiation, and standard autoclave cycles. Reliable decontamination needs protein-denaturing methods: immersion in sodium hydroxide followed by autoclaving, sodium hypochlorite, or porous-load autoclaving at 134°C.
Formalin, 70% alcohol, a routine 121°C cycle and ultraviolet irradiation all leave infectivity intact. For high-risk procedures, single-use instruments that are then incinerated are preferred.
- MCQ
Which molecule is a key entry receptor for Venezuelan equine encephalitis virus?
- A. Heparan sulfate acting on its own
- B. The neuronal acetylcholine receptor
- C. MXRA8
- D. LDLRAD3
- E. The transferrin receptor
Show answer
Correct answer: D
LDLRAD3, a low-density lipoprotein receptor-related protein, is a key entry receptor for Venezuelan equine encephalitis virus.
MXRA8 serves the arthritogenic Old World alphaviruses, and the others are not its receptor.
- MCQ
Which neuroimaging finding is characteristic of Japanese encephalitis?
- A. Temporal lobe haemorrhagic necrosis
- B. Bilateral thalamic lesions
- C. Periventricular calcification
- D. Cerebellar atrophy
- E. A normal scan in all cases
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Bilateral thalamic lesions are characteristic of Japanese encephalitis on CT or MRI, in keeping with its deep grey-matter tropism.
Temporal-lobe necrosis suggests herpes simplex encephalitis, and the other patterns are not typical of Japanese encephalitis.
- MCQ
Which statement about equine encephalitis virus pathogenesis is correct?
- A. The viruses do not infect central-nervous-system neurons
- B. Disease severity bears no relation to the age of the host
- C. Western virus is by far the most neurovirulent of the three
- D. They reach the brain only by travelling slowly along the peripheral nerves
- E. All three are neurotropic, and Eastern virus is the most neurovirulent
Show answer
Correct answer: E
All three viruses are neurotropic, invading the brain and infecting neurons, and Eastern equine encephalitis virus is the most neurovirulent.
Susceptibility to fatal disease is highest at the extremes of age, and neuroinvasion can occur by several routes, not only along nerves.
- MCQ
Which statement about Japanese encephalitis vaccination is correct?
- A. No vaccine exists
- B. Only a mouse-brain vaccine is available
- C. Vaccines protect against a single genotype only
- D. Effective inactivated and live-attenuated vaccines underpin routine childhood immunisation in endemic Asia
- E. Vaccination is contraindicated in children
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Effective inactivated (for example the Vero-cell IXIARO) and live-attenuated (SA14-14-2) vaccines drive routine childhood immunisation across endemic Asia and are recommended for at-risk travellers; because the virus is a single serotype, they protect across genotypes.
The mouse-brain vaccine is largely phased out, vaccines are not genotype-restricted, and children are the main target group.
- MCQ
Which statement about preventing equine encephalitis is correct?
- A. A safe licensed human vaccine is in widespread routine clinical use worldwide
- B. Venezuelan virus poses no laboratory-aerosol hazard at all
- C. Only antiviral prophylaxis is effective against these viruses
- D. No licensed human vaccine exists; Venezuelan virus is an aerosol biothreat
- E. Vaccinating horses plays no part in outbreak control
Show answer
Correct answer: D
There is no licensed human vaccine; veterinary vaccines protect horses, and Venezuelan equine encephalitis virus is highly infectious by aerosol and a recognised biothreat.
Human vaccines remain investigational, the laboratory-aerosol hazard is real, and equine vaccination is central to outbreak control.
- MCQ
Which statement about the cerebrospinal fluid in viral meningitis is correct?
- A. The glucose is characteristically under 40% of the serum value
- B. The white cell count usually exceeds 1000/mm³
- C. A lymphocyte predominance reliably excludes bacterial meningitis
- D. The protein is typically above 100 mg/dL
- E. About 40% of cases show an early neutrophil predominance
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The viral and bacterial cerebrospinal-fluid pictures overlap. Although viral meningitis is classically lymphocytic, about 40% of cases show a neutrophil predominance in the first day or two before shifting to lymphocytes, and about 15% of bacterial cases are lymphocytic, so neither pattern is decisive (against option C).
The typical viral profile is a modest pleocytosis (usually 30 to 300, up to 500/mm³), a protein under 100 mg/dL (against option D), and a glucose above 40% of the serum value (against option A).
- MCQ
Which statement about tick-borne encephalitis vaccines is correct?
- A. Only a live-attenuated vaccine exists
- B. There is no effective vaccine
- C. Inactivated European-subtype vaccines cross-protect against all three subtypes
- D. The vaccine protects only against the European subtype
- E. A single dose gives lifelong protection
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Effective inactivated whole-virus vaccines based on the European subtype cross-protect against all three subtypes, with efficacy above 95%; they are given as a multi-dose primary series with periodic boosters.
There is no single-dose lifelong tick-borne encephalitis vaccine, and protection is not restricted to the European subtype.
- MCQ
Which statement best describes VZV latency?
- A. It occurs in circulating B lymphocytes
- B. It is maintained by continuous full lytic gene expression
- C. It is restricted to thoracic skin cells
- D. It is established in neurons, including enteric ganglia
- E. It never involves the cranial or autonomic nerve ganglia
Show answer
Correct answer: D
VZV establishes lifelong latency in neurons, and not only in the dorsal-root sensory ganglia but also in cranial-nerve, autonomic and enteric ganglia.
In the latent state the virus shuts down almost all gene expression, restricting itself largely to a non-coding latency-associated transcript that suppresses ORF61 and so blocks the cascade that would otherwise drive replication.
- MCQ
Which subtype of tick-borne encephalitis virus carries the highest case-fatality?
- A. The European (Western) subtype
- B. The Far-Eastern subtype
- C. The Siberian subtype
- D. All subtypes carry an identical case-fatality
- E. The Kunjin subtype
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The Far-Eastern subtype is the most severe, with a case-fatality of roughly 20% to 40%, compared with about 6% to 8% for the Siberian and 0.5% to 2% for the European subtype.
Kunjin is a subtype of West Nile virus, not of tick-borne encephalitis virus.
- MCQ
Which test detects the misfolded prion protein itself and carries a specificity of about 98%?
- A. Cerebrospinal fluid 14-3-3 protein assay
- B. Periodic sharp waves on electroencephalography
- C. Real-time quaking-induced conversion assay
- D. Cerebrospinal fluid total tau assay
- E. Cortical ribboning on magnetic resonance imaging
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The real-time quaking-induced conversion assay amplifies and detects the misfolded prion protein directly in cerebrospinal fluid, with a specificity around 98%, so a positive result carries real diagnostic weight.
The 14-3-3 and total tau assays measure non-specific markers of neuronal injury, and the periodic sharp waves and cortical ribboning are supportive findings rather than detection of the protein itself.
- MCQ
Which virus belongs to the same tick-borne encephalitis serocomplex as tick-borne encephalitis virus?
- A. Japanese encephalitis virus
- B. West Nile virus
- C. Dengue virus
- D. Yellow fever virus
- E. Powassan virus
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Powassan virus is a member of the tick-borne encephalitis serocomplex, which also contains Kyasanur Forest disease, Omsk haemorrhagic fever and louping ill viruses.
Japanese encephalitis and West Nile viruses form the mosquito-borne Japanese encephalitis serocomplex, and dengue and yellow fever are separate groups.
- MCQ
Why are humans considered dead-end hosts for Japanese encephalitis virus?
- A. They are resistant to infection
- B. They are rarely bitten by Culex mosquitoes
- C. They transmit only to pigs
- D. They are infected only in the laboratory
- E. They do not develop enough viraemia to infect feeding mosquitoes
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Human viraemia is too low to infect feeding mosquitoes, so people cannot sustain the cycle, which is maintained by pigs and wading birds; there is no human-to-human spread.
Humans are fully susceptible and are bitten in the field, so the other options are incorrect.
- MCQ
Worldwide, the largest number of cases of viral encephalitis is caused by:
- A. Herpes simplex virus
- B. Enteroviruses
- C. Cytomegalovirus
- D. The arboviruses
- E. Measles virus
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The distinction is between sporadic and epidemic disease. Herpes simplex virus is the commonest cause of sporadic encephalitis, the isolated, non-seasonal case, and the one that most demands treatment. The larger numbers worldwide, however, are epidemic and vector-borne: the arboviruses are the leading cause of encephalitis globally, with Japanese encephalitis virus foremost among them. Rabies, an animal-bite infection rather than an arbovirus, is the other major global cause.
Clinical scenarioA hiker returns from a summer walking holiday in rural Austria. A week after a febrile, flu-like illness that settled, he develops headache, neck stiffness and drowsiness. He recalls a tick bite and had also drunk unpasteurised goat's milk at a farm. a) What is the most likely diagnosis and what is the pattern of illness called? [2] b) Besides the tick bite, what other exposure is relevant and why? [2] c) How would you confirm the diagnosis? [2] d) What single measure could have prevented it? [1]
Model answer
a. Tick-borne encephalitis in its biphasic form: a grippe-like first phase, a remission, then a neurological second phase of meningitis or meningoencephalitis, typical of the European subtype.
b. The unpasteurised goat’s milk, because tick-borne encephalitis virus can be acquired by the alimentary route from the milk of infected goats, sheep or cattle, an additional exposure to the tick bite.
c. Serology, with IgM-capture ELISA on serum and cerebrospinal fluid and a rising titre in paired sera; virus is rarely isolated once neurological disease has begun.
d. Tick-borne encephalitis vaccination before travel (with tick-bite avoidance and avoiding unpasteurised dairy as supporting measures).
Clinical scenarioA patient with HIV and a CD4 count below 100 cells per microlitre develops progressive right-sided weakness and a visual field defect over several weeks. Describe the clinical and radiological features of PML and its main differential diagnoses.
Model answer
Clinical and radiological features
PML presents subacutely over weeks with focal deficits that reflect lesion location rather than a single syndrome: limb weakness, visual field loss, cognitive or behavioural change, speech disturbance and ataxia. Fever and headache are characteristically absent. Magnetic resonance imaging shows one or more areas of subcortical white matter that are hyperintense on T2-weighted and FLAIR sequences and hypointense on T1, without mass effect and, in the untreated HIV setting, usually without contrast enhancement.
Differential diagnosis
The differential is the rest of the advanced-HIV brain. HIV encephalitis causes a more diffuse, symmetrical leukoencephalopathy with cognitive decline. Cerebral toxoplasmosis and primary central nervous system lymphoma both produce mass lesions with oedema and ring or homogeneous enhancement, unlike PML. Cytomegalovirus encephalitis tends to be periventricular. The lack of mass effect and enhancement, the multifocal white-matter pattern, and a positive cerebrospinal fluid JC virus PCR distinguish PML, with biopsy reserved for unresolved cases.
SAQName the three subtypes of tick-borne encephalitis virus and rank them by severity. [3]
Model answer
- European (Western) subtype: the mildest, with a case-fatality of about 0.5% to 2%; transmitted by Ixodes ricinus.
- Siberian subtype: intermediate severity, case-fatality about 6% to 8%, and associated with chronic progressive disease.
- Far-Eastern subtype: the most severe, case-fatality about 20% to 40%, often monophasic with prominent paralysis.
Exam-styleCompare and contrast post-infectious measles encephalitis (ADEM), measles inclusion body encephalitis (MIBE) and subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE): timing after infection, host factors, and diagnostic features. [6]
Model answer
Measles produces a spectrum of central nervous system (CNS) complications defined by when they appear after the acute illness, the host’s immune status, and whether active or defective measles virus (MeV) is present in the brain.
Feature ADEM MIBE SSPE Full name Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (post-infectious) Measles inclusion-body encephalitis Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis Timing after measles Days to weeks (within the first week of rash) Weeks to months 6 to 10 years (range 1 to over 30) Host Immunocompetent (usually over 2 years) Immunocompromised Immunocompetent (especially if infected under 2 years) Mechanism Post-infectious autoimmune: molecular mimicry, perivascular lymphocytic cuffing, demyelination Active CNS infection by replicating MeV Persistent CNS infection by defective MeV (mutated M, H, F genes; no virion assembly) MeV in brain? No, virus not detected Yes, with virion production Yes, but defective; no infectious virus recoverable Incidence ~1 in 1,000 measles cases Rare ~1 in 10,000 to 100,000 Clinical course Monophasic, over weeks Progressive over months Progressive over years, with periodic remissions Outcome ~10 to 20% mortality, frequent sequelae Almost always fatal Invariably fatal (1 to 3 years from onset) Pathology Demyelination, perivascular inflammation Inclusion bodies in neurons and glia Diffuse encephalitis, nuclear and cytoplasmic inclusions, patchy demyelination MeV antibody in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? No intrathecal synthesis Variable, often poor Markedly elevated, with oligoclonal immunoglobulin G (IgG) bands Diagnosis Clinical, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) demyelination, CSF lymphocytic pleocytosis CSF reverse-transcription PCR (RT-PCR) for MeV; biopsy if available Diagnostic triad: clinical decline, periodic high-amplitude slow-wave electroencephalogram (EEG) complexes, intrathecal MeV antibody Key discriminators. Time after rash separates them first: ADEM in days to weeks, MIBE in months, SSPE in years. Host status separates them next: MIBE is the encephalitis of the immunocompromised, whereas SSPE strikes the previously immunocompetent young child. Presence of virus in the brain distinguishes the three pathologies: absent in ADEM (autoimmune), actively replicating in MIBE, and defective in SSPE. All three are largely preventable by measles vaccination.
- MCQ
JC virus is best described as:
- A. A non-enveloped virus with a circular double-stranded DNA genome
- B. An enveloped virus with a positive-sense single-stranded RNA genome
- C. A non-enveloped virus with a linear single-stranded DNA genome
- D. An enveloped virus with a double-stranded DNA genome
- E. A non-enveloped virus with a segmented RNA genome
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Why A
JC virus is a polyomavirus: a small non-enveloped icosahedral particle with a circular double-stranded DNA genome of about 5 kilobases, whose large T antigen drives the cell into S phase to support replication. Option C describes a parvovirus, B a picornavirus or similar, E an orthomyxovirus, and D an enveloped DNA virus such as a herpesvirus.
- MCQ
Two weeks after starting antiretroviral therapy, a patient with PML deteriorates, and new MRI lesions now show contrast enhancement and oedema. The most likely explanation is:
- A. Antiretroviral drug toxicity
- B. Inevitable progression of untreated PML
- C. A new bacterial cerebral abscess
- D. Haemorrhagic transformation of the demyelinating lesions
- E. Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Why E
Restoring immunity can provoke an immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome, in which the returning T-cell response attacks JC-virus-infected cells; the formerly non-enhancing PML lesions develop enhancement and oedema and the patient worsens even as infection is being controlled. The timing after antiretroviral therapy and the new enhancement point to PML-IRIS rather than drug toxicity, simple progression, abscess or haemorrhage.