Questions

Travel-Associated Viral Infections: an Overview — Questions

Study questions for Travel-Associated Viral Infections: an Overview.

Mock Exam mode

Sit this set one question at a time. Multiple-choice questions mark themselves; written questions reveal a tickable mark scheme so you can score your own answer. You get a combined score at the end.

25 questions: 18 MCQ, 7 written.

High-priority (past-paper) questions only

a. The greatest concern is rabies, a uniformly fatal lyssavirus encephalitis once symptomatic. Bat teeth are tiny and a bite can leave no visible wound, so the absence of a recollected bite does not exclude exposure. Also to consider are the African bat lyssaviruses (Duvenhage, Lagos bat and Mokola viruses), which cause a clinically identical disease.

b. Treat this as a Category III exposure, because plausible bat contact with a sleeping or otherwise incapacitated person is managed as high-risk even without a demonstrable wound. Wash any potentially exposed skin thoroughly with soap and water; give full post-exposure prophylaxis, meaning rabies vaccine plus rabies immunoglobulin infiltrated around the exposure site; and capture the bat for testing only if it is safe to do so.

c. Efficacy is threatened by the frequent unavailability of rabies immunoglobulin in rural and resource-limited settings, by delay in reaching a facility that can provide it, and by the possibility that the agent is an African bat lyssavirus against which the standard vaccine offers uncertain or no cross-protection.

Malaria blood film and rapid diagnostic test first, repeated if negative and suspicion is high, since malaria is the time-critical diagnosis.
Full blood count and blood film, looking for the thrombocytopenia of dengue and the atypical lymphocytes of viral infection, with liver function tests for the hepatitis viruses and yellow fever.
Blood cultures for enteric fever and other bacterial causes.
Virus-specific tests guided by exposure and incubation: nucleic-acid or antigen tests such as dengue NS1 early in the illness, and serology later, interpreted against flavivirus cross-reactivity.
An HIV test, since acute retroviral illness presents as an undifferentiated fever.
Where a viral haemorrhagic fever is plausible, notify and process specimens under the appropriate biosafety containment.

Timing relative to symptom onset. Early in illness the virus is detectable but antibody is not, and later the reverse, so a test sent at the wrong point gives a falsely reassuring result.
Flavivirus cross-reactivity. Dengue, yellow fever, Japanese encephalitis and Zika antibodies, and prior vaccination, confound each other, often needing a confirmatory neutralisation test.
Paired samples. A single IgG is rarely informative; a rising titre in paired sera is usually required.
Availability. Specialised assays and reference or containment laboratories are limited, delaying diagnosis.
False negatives. Rapid tests can miss low viral loads, and a negative result does not exclude a serious infection when the clinical suspicion is high.

A complete answer shows how each element of the travel history narrows the differential before any test is sent.

Geography. Where the traveller went defines which infections are even possible, since dengue, yellow fever, Japanese encephalitis and the viral haemorrhagic fevers each have defined endemic ranges.

Timing and incubation period. Matching the interval since exposure to the illness is the most powerful discriminator: a fever within days suggests dengue, chikungunya or influenza, while onset after weeks points to hepatitis A or E or acute HIV.

Specific exposures. Insect and tick bites, freshwater contact, food and water, animal contact, sexual contact, healthcare and mass gatherings each raise particular agents.

Immunisation and prophylaxis. Vaccination and malaria chemoprophylaxis history reshape the probabilities, though neither is fully protective.

The overriding rule. In any febrile returning traveller, malaria must be actively excluded first, and a viral haemorrhagic fever considered where the exposure fits, because these are the time-critical diagnoses.

A complete answer covers the categories of travel vaccine, the timing and individual assessment, the live-versus-non-live distinction, and the required vaccines with their certification.

The three categories. Routine vaccines are reviewed and caught up at the pre-travel visit; recommended vaccines protect against diseases endemic at the destination; and required vaccines are demanded as a condition of entry.

Timing. The consultation is ideally held four to eight weeks before departure, leaving time to complete multi-dose courses and for immunity to develop.

Individual risk assessment. The choice is matched to the itinerary, activities, duration and the traveller’s age, pregnancy, immune status and prior vaccination.

Live versus non-live. Live vaccines such as yellow fever, measles-mumps-rubella and varicella are contraindicated in pregnancy and significant immunocompromise, which reshapes the schedule for these groups.

Required vaccines and certification. Yellow fever, polio and meningococcal disease may be required for entry, recorded on the International Certificate of Vaccination or Prophylaxis, and the traveller should leave with a written record of all vaccines given.

A complete answer defines point-of-care testing, sets out its rationale in the South African setting, gives worked examples across viral diseases, and weighs its limitations and the governance it requires.

Definition

Point-of-care or near-patient testing is performed outside the central laboratory, at or near the patient, with a result available within minutes to enable an immediate clinical decision. It spans rapid antigen assays, lateral-flow antibody tests, and portable molecular platforms.

Rationale in South Africa

The country combines a high burden of HIV, tuberculosis and viral hepatitis with populations distant from centralised laboratories. Point-of-care testing improves access, shortens turnaround, and strengthens linkage to care by allowing test-and-treat in a single visit, which is decisive where patients are hard to trace.

Worked examples

HIV rapid antibody tests underpin the national testing programme and HIV self-testing.
Point-of-care nucleic-acid testing supports early infant diagnosis and point-of-care viral load, reducing loss to follow-up.
Hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis C antibody rapid tests extend screening beyond the laboratory.
SARS-CoV-2, influenza and respiratory syncytial virus rapid antigen tests guide acute respiratory triage.
Malaria rapid diagnostic tests, though for a parasite, are the point-of-care counterpart in the febrile traveller.

Limitations

Point-of-care assays are generally less sensitive and specific than laboratory reference methods: antibody tests miss the window period, antigen tests can give false negatives at low viral load, and results are operator-dependent. Reactive or discordant results need laboratory confirmation. Practical constraints include quality assurance in the field, result documentation and connectivity, cold-chain and supply, and cost.

Governance

Reliable point-of-care testing depends on operator training, external quality assessment, dedicated coordinators, and documented results integrated into the patient record, without which the speed advantage is undermined by error.

A complete answer links the pattern of exposure of each travel type to the viruses it favours.

Urban travel. City stays carry the day-biting Aedes arboviruses dengue, Zika and chikungunya, alongside the respiratory viruses of crowds and transport, including influenza and SARS-CoV-2, and measles where coverage is low.

Rural travel. Rural and outdoor itineraries add the vector- and animal-linked viruses: Japanese encephalitis in Asian rice-farming areas, tick-borne encephalitis in European forests, sylvatic yellow fever, and rabies from dog and wildlife contact.

Humanitarian and healthcare travel. Aid and clinical work raise the bloodborne viruses hepatitis B, hepatitis C and HIV through occupational exposure, the risk of a viral haemorrhagic fever during an outbreak response, and enteric viruses where sanitation has broken down.

Mass-gathering travel. Dense crowds favour respiratory and close-contact spread, notably influenza and measles, and account for the meningococcal vaccination requirement at the hajj.

Falciparum malaria takes at least around six days to become symptomatic, so fever in the first days of a trip is not malaria. The window then extends for weeks to months, so later fever never excludes it.

Malaria must still be actively excluded once the incubation window has opened; the other options misstate its timing and prevention.

Tick-borne encephalitis is endemic in European forest habitat and acquired from Ixodes tick bites, so extensive forest exposure in the tick season is the indication for its inactivated vaccine. It is a distinct product from the Japanese encephalitis vaccine.

Japanese encephalitis is an Asian rural mosquito-borne disease, and yellow fever does not occur in Europe.

A previously vaccinated person needs only two further vaccine doses and no rabies immunoglobulin. This is the main practical value of pre-exposure vaccination, because immunoglobulin is scarce across much of the endemic world.

Immunoglobulin and the four-dose course are reserved for those never previously vaccinated; wound cleansing is always required.

An infant aged 6 to 11 months travelling to a risk area should receive an early measles-mumps-rubella dose, which does not count toward the routine series and is repeated from 12 months of age. Early protection outweighs the reduced response at this age.

Measles-mumps-rubella-varicella vaccine is not licensed under 12 months, and delaying leaves the infant exposed during travel.

Wild poliovirus type 1 is now endemic in only two countries, Afghanistan and Pakistan. Vaccine-derived strains circulate more widely, so the affected-country list changes and must be checked at the time of travel.

Nigeria and India are among the countries that have interrupted wild poliovirus transmission.

Chikungunya vaccine is recommended chiefly for travel to areas with an active outbreak, and may be considered for long stays in elevated-risk areas. A virus-like-particle vaccine is the current option after the earlier live-attenuated vaccine was suspended in some markets.

It is not an entry requirement, and mosquito-bite avoidance remains essential.

The vaccine is recommended for longer or rural stays in endemic Asia during the transmission season, where the mosquito vector breeds in flooded rice fields and pigs amplify the virus.

Brief urban trips carry negligible risk, and the other destinations lie outside the endemic range of the virus.

No dengue vaccine is positioned as a routine measure for the general traveller. Dengvaxia is used only in proven previously-infected residents of endemic areas, and although Qdenga is prequalified and widely used in endemic programmes, it is not a standard traveller vaccine.

Bite avoidance remains the mainstay for travellers, and no dengue vaccine is an entry requirement.

A single dose gives lifelong protection, and since 11 July 2016 the certificate is valid for the life of the vaccinee; a booster can no longer be required for entry. The certificate itself becomes valid 10 days after vaccination.

The former 10-year validity and any booster or renewal requirement no longer apply, and the certificate is recognised internationally.

Pre-exposure rabies vaccination is now a two-dose schedule given on days 0 and 7. It does not remove the need for care after a bite, but it simplifies it.

The older three-dose regimen has been superseded, and the four-dose course is a post-exposure schedule for the previously unvaccinated.

Severe dengue is most associated with a second infection by a different serotype, through antibody-dependent enhancement, in which non-neutralising antibody from the first infection helps the second virus enter cells.

This is why priming a dengue-naive person with vaccine can be hazardous; the other options do not raise the risk.

Hepatitis A is the most common vaccine-preventable infection in travellers, spread by the faecal-oral route wherever sanitation is uncertain, and a single dose before departure protects most healthy travellers.

The others are either less common in travellers or restricted to particular destinations and exposures.

Handwashing with soap and water is more effective than alcohol hand sanitiser against norovirus, because the non-enveloped virus resists alcohol; sanitiser is only an adjunct.

Wipes, water alone and mouthwash do not reliably remove the virus from the hands.

Zika infection in pregnancy is teratogenic and causes congenital Zika syndrome, with microcephaly, brain and eye anomalies and fetal loss, even though maternal illness is usually mild.

Zika does not cause the maternal haemorrhage, high maternal mortality or arthritis suggested by the other options.

Only yellow fever, polio and meningococcal disease can be demanded as a condition of entry under the International Health Regulations (2005), recorded on the International Certificate of Vaccination or Prophylaxis.

The other combinations mix recommended and routine vaccines, which protect travellers but are never a legal entry requirement.

Long-stay travellers leaving an affected country may be required to show a polio dose received between 4 weeks and 12 months before departure, documented on the certificate. The measure aims to stop travellers exporting the virus across borders.

Childhood doses alone, natural immunity or stool testing do not satisfy the requirement.

Significant immunocompromise, including symptomatic HIV or a CD4 count below 200, contraindicates this live vaccine because it can replicate unchecked. Stable HIV with a CD4 count of at least 200 is acceptable.

Age over 60, breastfeeding and egg allergy are cautions weighed against the risk of travel, not absolute bars.

Travellers visiting friends and relatives carry much of the imported malaria, typhoid and hepatitis A, because they stay longer, live in local households and take fewer precautions, yet seek pre-travel advice least often.

The other groups generally face lower or better-mitigated risk for these infections.

High priorityClinical scenarioA tourist staying at a lodge in Mpumalanga wakes to find a bat that had flown in through the window; there is no recollection of a bite and no visible wound. (a) What viral pathogen is of greatest concern, and what else should be considered? (b) What management would you advise? (c) What might limit the efficacy of standard management in this setting? [5]
Model answer
a. The greatest concern is rabies, a uniformly fatal lyssavirus encephalitis once symptomatic. Bat teeth are tiny and a bite can leave no visible wound, so the absence of a recollected bite does not exclude exposure. Also to consider are the African bat lyssaviruses (Duvenhage, Lagos bat and Mokola viruses), which cause a clinically identical disease.

b. Treat this as a Category III exposure, because plausible bat contact with a sleeping or otherwise incapacitated person is managed as high-risk even without a demonstrable wound. Wash any potentially exposed skin thoroughly with soap and water; give full post-exposure prophylaxis, meaning rabies vaccine plus rabies immunoglobulin infiltrated around the exposure site; and capture the bat for testing only if it is safe to do so.

c. Efficacy is threatened by the frequent unavailability of rabies immunoglobulin in rural and resource-limited settings, by delay in reaching a facility that can provide it, and by the possibility that the agent is an African bat lyssavirus against which the standard vaccine offers uncertain or no cross-protection.
High prioritySAQDescribe the laboratory investigations you would perform in a traveller presenting with an acute febrile illness. [6]
Model answer
- Malaria blood film and rapid diagnostic test first, repeated if negative and suspicion is high, since malaria is the time-critical diagnosis.
- Full blood count and blood film, looking for the thrombocytopenia of dengue and the atypical lymphocytes of viral infection, with liver function tests for the hepatitis viruses and yellow fever.
- Blood cultures for enteric fever and other bacterial causes.
- Virus-specific tests guided by exposure and incubation: nucleic-acid or antigen tests such as dengue NS1 early in the illness, and serology later, interpreted against flavivirus cross-reactivity.
- An HIV test, since acute retroviral illness presents as an undifferentiated fever.
- Where a viral haemorrhagic fever is plausible, notify and process specimens under the appropriate biosafety containment.
High prioritySAQExplain the limitations of diagnostic testing in the returning traveller with a suspected viral infection. [5]
Model answer
- Timing relative to symptom onset. Early in illness the virus is detectable but antibody is not, and later the reverse, so a test sent at the wrong point gives a falsely reassuring result.
- Flavivirus cross-reactivity. Dengue, yellow fever, Japanese encephalitis and Zika antibodies, and prior vaccination, confound each other, often needing a confirmatory neutralisation test.
- Paired samples. A single IgG is rarely informative; a rising titre in paired sera is usually required.
- Availability. Specialised assays and reference or containment laboratories are limited, delaying diagnosis.
- False negatives. Rapid tests can miss low viral loads, and a negative result does not exclude a serious infection when the clinical suspicion is high.
High priorityExam-styleDescribe how a travel history informs the differential diagnosis of a viral infection in a returning traveller. [6]
Model answer
A complete answer shows how each element of the travel history narrows the differential before any test is sent.

Geography. Where the traveller went defines which infections are even possible, since dengue, yellow fever, Japanese encephalitis and the viral haemorrhagic fevers each have defined endemic ranges.

Timing and incubation period. Matching the interval since exposure to the illness is the most powerful discriminator: a fever within days suggests dengue, chikungunya or influenza, while onset after weeks points to hepatitis A or E or acute HIV.

Specific exposures. Insect and tick bites, freshwater contact, food and water, animal contact, sexual contact, healthcare and mass gatherings each raise particular agents.

Immunisation and prophylaxis. Vaccination and malaria chemoprophylaxis history reshape the probabilities, though neither is fully protective.

The overriding rule. In any febrile returning traveller, malaria must be actively excluded first, and a viral haemorrhagic fever considered where the exposure fits, because these are the time-critical diagnoses.
High priorityExam-styleDescribe the vaccination considerations for an international traveller. [8]
Model answer
A complete answer covers the categories of travel vaccine, the timing and individual assessment, the live-versus-non-live distinction, and the required vaccines with their certification.

The three categories. Routine vaccines are reviewed and caught up at the pre-travel visit; recommended vaccines protect against diseases endemic at the destination; and required vaccines are demanded as a condition of entry.

Timing. The consultation is ideally held four to eight weeks before departure, leaving time to complete multi-dose courses and for immunity to develop.

Individual risk assessment. The choice is matched to the itinerary, activities, duration and the traveller’s age, pregnancy, immune status and prior vaccination.

Live versus non-live. Live vaccines such as yellow fever, measles-mumps-rubella and varicella are contraindicated in pregnancy and significant immunocompromise, which reshapes the schedule for these groups.

Required vaccines and certification. Yellow fever, polio and meningococcal disease may be required for entry, recorded on the International Certificate of Vaccination or Prophylaxis, and the traveller should leave with a written record of all vaccines given.
High priorityExam-styleDiscuss point-of-care and near-patient testing for the diagnosis and monitoring of viral diseases in South Africa. [20]
Model answer
A complete answer defines point-of-care testing, sets out its rationale in the South African setting, gives worked examples across viral diseases, and weighs its limitations and the governance it requires.

Definition

Point-of-care or near-patient testing is performed outside the central laboratory, at or near the patient, with a result available within minutes to enable an immediate clinical decision. It spans rapid antigen assays, lateral-flow antibody tests, and portable molecular platforms.

Rationale in South Africa

The country combines a high burden of HIV, tuberculosis and viral hepatitis with populations distant from centralised laboratories. Point-of-care testing improves access, shortens turnaround, and strengthens linkage to care by allowing test-and-treat in a single visit, which is decisive where patients are hard to trace.

Worked examples
- HIV rapid antibody tests underpin the national testing programme and HIV self-testing.
- Point-of-care nucleic-acid testing supports early infant diagnosis and point-of-care viral load, reducing loss to follow-up.
- Hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis C antibody rapid tests extend screening beyond the laboratory.
- SARS-CoV-2, influenza and respiratory syncytial virus rapid antigen tests guide acute respiratory triage.
- Malaria rapid diagnostic tests, though for a parasite, are the point-of-care counterpart in the febrile traveller.
Limitations

Point-of-care assays are generally less sensitive and specific than laboratory reference methods: antibody tests miss the window period, antigen tests can give false negatives at low viral load, and results are operator-dependent. Reactive or discordant results need laboratory confirmation. Practical constraints include quality assurance in the field, result documentation and connectivity, cold-chain and supply, and cost.

Governance

Reliable point-of-care testing depends on operator training, external quality assessment, dedicated coordinators, and documented results integrated into the patient record, without which the speed advantage is undermined by error.
High priorityExam-styleExplain the viral infection risks associated with different types of travel (urban, rural, humanitarian or healthcare, and mass-gathering travel). [6]
Model answer
A complete answer links the pattern of exposure of each travel type to the viruses it favours.

Urban travel. City stays carry the day-biting Aedes arboviruses dengue, Zika and chikungunya, alongside the respiratory viruses of crowds and transport, including influenza and SARS-CoV-2, and measles where coverage is low.

Rural travel. Rural and outdoor itineraries add the vector- and animal-linked viruses: Japanese encephalitis in Asian rice-farming areas, tick-borne encephalitis in European forests, sylvatic yellow fever, and rabies from dog and wildlife contact.

Humanitarian and healthcare travel. Aid and clinical work raise the bloodborne viruses hepatitis B, hepatitis C and HIV through occupational exposure, the risk of a viral haemorrhagic fever during an outbreak response, and enteric viruses where sanitation has broken down.

Mass-gathering travel. Dense crowds favour respiratory and close-contact spread, notably influenza and measles, and account for the meningococcal vaccination requirement at the hajj.
MCQ
A traveller develops fever three days after arriving in a malaria-endemic area. Malaria is unlikely at this point because:
- A. Malaria typically presents within a day of the infective mosquito bite
- B. Chemoprophylaxis fully prevents any infection abroad
- C. Falciparum malaria needs at least about six days to present
- D. Early fever points to a viral cause instead of malaria
- E. Malaria develops once the traveller has returned home
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Falciparum malaria takes at least around six days to become symptomatic, so fever in the first days of a trip is not malaria. The window then extends for weeks to months, so later fever never excludes it.

Malaria must still be actively excluded once the incubation window has opened; the other options misstate its timing and prevention.
MCQ
A traveller planning summer hiking and camping in the forests of the Baltic states should be offered:
- A. Tick-borne encephalitis vaccine
- B. The Japanese encephalitis travel vaccine
- C. Yellow fever vaccine before departure
- D. No specific arboviral vaccine at all
- E. Rabies pre-exposure vaccine alone
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Tick-borne encephalitis is endemic in European forest habitat and acquired from Ixodes tick bites, so extensive forest exposure in the tick season is the indication for its inactivated vaccine. It is a distinct product from the Japanese encephalitis vaccine.

Japanese encephalitis is an Asian rural mosquito-borne disease, and yellow fever does not occur in Europe.
MCQ
A traveller with documented pre-exposure rabies vaccination is bitten by a dog abroad. Correct post-exposure treatment is:
- A. Full immunoglobulin plus a four-dose course
- B. Immunoglobulin alone
- C. A single vaccine dose
- D. Observation if the dog appears well
- E. Two vaccine doses and no immunoglobulin
Show answer
Correct answer: E
A previously vaccinated person needs only two further vaccine doses and no rabies immunoglobulin. This is the main practical value of pre-exposure vaccination, because immunoglobulin is scarce across much of the endemic world.

Immunoglobulin and the four-dose course are reserved for those never previously vaccinated; wound cleansing is always required.
MCQ
An 8-month-old infant is travelling to a measles-endemic area. The correct advice is:
- A. Wait until 12 months for the routine first dose
- B. A single dose now that counts fully as the routine first dose
- C. Give measles-mumps-rubella-varicella vaccine immediately
- D. Human immunoglobulin instead of measles vaccine
- E. One measles-mumps-rubella dose now, repeated from 12 months
Show answer
Correct answer: E
An infant aged 6 to 11 months travelling to a risk area should receive an early measles-mumps-rubella dose, which does not count toward the routine series and is repeated from 12 months of age. Early protection outweighs the reduced response at this age.

Measles-mumps-rubella-varicella vaccine is not licensed under 12 months, and delaying leaves the infant exposed during travel.
MCQ
As of 2026, wild poliovirus type 1 remains endemic in:
- A. Nigeria and Chad
- B. Afghanistan and Pakistan
- C. India and Bangladesh
- D. Syria and Yemen
- E. The Democratic Republic of the Congo
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Wild poliovirus type 1 is now endemic in only two countries, Afghanistan and Pakistan. Vaccine-derived strains circulate more widely, so the affected-country list changes and must be checked at the time of travel.

Nigeria and India are among the countries that have interrupted wild poliovirus transmission.
MCQ
Chikungunya vaccination is currently recommended mainly for travellers:
- A. Of any age visiting any tropical country
- B. Going to an area with an active outbreak
- C. Who have previously been infected
- D. As a condition of entry to endemic countries
- E. In place of mosquito-bite avoidance
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Chikungunya vaccine is recommended chiefly for travel to areas with an active outbreak, and may be considered for long stays in elevated-risk areas. A virus-like-particle vaccine is the current option after the earlier live-attenuated vaccine was suspended in some markets.

It is not an entry requirement, and mosquito-bite avoidance remains essential.
MCQ
Japanese encephalitis vaccine is most clearly indicated for a traveller who is:
- A. A three-day urban business trip staying in central Tokyo
- B. A month in rural rice-farming Asia in the wet season
- C. A short beach holiday on the Brazilian coast
- D. Summer trekking in forests of the Baltic states
- E. A guided river cruise along the Egyptian Nile
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The vaccine is recommended for longer or rural stays in endemic Asia during the transmission season, where the mosquito vector breeds in flooded rice fields and pigs amplify the virus.

Brief urban trips carry negligible risk, and the other destinations lie outside the endemic range of the virus.
MCQ
Regarding dengue vaccination for the general traveller:
- A. Dengvaxia is recommended for all international travellers
- B. Qdenga is required under the International Health Regulations
- C. A single catch-up dose is given on arrival
- D. Vaccination removes the need for bite avoidance
- E. No dengue vaccine is routinely advised for travellers
Show answer
Correct answer: E
No dengue vaccine is positioned as a routine measure for the general traveller. Dengvaxia is used only in proven previously-infected residents of endemic areas, and although Qdenga is prequalified and widely used in endemic programmes, it is not a standard traveller vaccine.

Bite avoidance remains the mainstay for travellers, and no dengue vaccine is an entry requirement.
MCQ
Since the 2016 amendment to the International Health Regulations, a valid yellow fever vaccination certificate is:
- A. Valid for 10 years from vaccination
- B. Valid only with a booster every 5 years
- C. Valid for the life of the vaccinee
- D. Renewed before each journey
- E. Valid only in the country of issue
Show answer
Correct answer: C
A single dose gives lifelong protection, and since 11 July 2016 the certificate is valid for the life of the vaccinee; a booster can no longer be required for entry. The certificate itself becomes valid 10 days after vaccination.

The former 10-year validity and any booster or renewal requirement no longer apply, and the certificate is recognised internationally.
MCQ
The current pre-exposure rabies vaccination schedule for travellers is:
- A. Three doses on days 0, 7 and 21
- B. A single dose only
- C. Four doses over 14 days
- D. Two doses six months apart
- E. Two doses on days 0 and 7
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Pre-exposure rabies vaccination is now a two-dose schedule given on days 0 and 7. It does not remove the need for care after a bite, but it simplifies it.

The older three-dose regimen has been superseded, and the four-dose course is a post-exposure schedule for the previously unvaccinated.
MCQ
The main risk factor for severe dengue is:
- A. A first natural infection acquired in early childhood
- B. Prior yellow fever vaccination before departure
- C. A second infection with a different serotype
- D. Co-infection with acute hepatitis A
- E. Travel during the dry winter season
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Severe dengue is most associated with a second infection by a different serotype, through antibody-dependent enhancement, in which non-neutralising antibody from the first infection helps the second virus enter cells.

This is why priming a dengue-naive person with vaccine can be hazardous; the other options do not raise the risk.
MCQ
The most common vaccine-preventable infection acquired by travellers is:
- A. Typhoid
- B. Yellow fever
- C. Japanese encephalitis
- D. Hepatitis A
- E. Hepatitis B
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Hepatitis A is the most common vaccine-preventable infection in travellers, spread by the faecal-oral route wherever sanitation is uncertain, and a single dose before departure protects most healthy travellers.

The others are either less common in travellers or restricted to particular destinations and exposures.
MCQ
The most effective hand-hygiene measure against norovirus is:
- A. Alcohol-based hand sanitiser applied liberally
- B. Antibacterial hand wipes after contact
- C. Rinsing the hands with warm water
- D. Handwashing with soap and water
- E. Gargling with an antiseptic mouthwash
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Handwashing with soap and water is more effective than alcohol hand sanitiser against norovirus, because the non-enveloped virus resists alcohol; sanitiser is only an adjunct.

Wipes, water alone and mouthwash do not reliably remove the virus from the hands.
MCQ
The principal reason a pregnant traveller should avoid areas with active Zika transmission is:
- A. Severe maternal haemorrhage during illness
- B. A high risk of maternal death
- C. Chronic disabling maternal arthritis afterwards
- D. The risk of congenital Zika syndrome
- E. Fetal hepatitis and liver failure
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Zika infection in pregnancy is teratogenic and causes congenital Zika syndrome, with microcephaly, brain and eye anomalies and fetal loss, even though maternal illness is usually mild.

Zika does not cause the maternal haemorrhage, high maternal mortality or arthritis suggested by the other options.
MCQ
Under the International Health Regulations, proof of vaccination as a condition of entry can be required for which set of diseases?
- A. Yellow fever, polio and meningococcal disease
- B. Yellow fever, hepatitis A and typhoid
- C. Measles, polio and rabies
- D. Hepatitis B, yellow fever and cholera
- E. Japanese encephalitis, hepatitis A and rabies
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Only yellow fever, polio and meningococcal disease can be demanded as a condition of entry under the International Health Regulations (2005), recorded on the International Certificate of Vaccination or Prophylaxis.

The other combinations mix recommended and routine vaccines, which protect travellers but are never a legal entry requirement.
MCQ
Under the polio public health emergency, a traveller residing more than four weeks in a country with poliovirus circulation may be required to show:
- A. A polio dose received 4 weeks to 12 months before departure
- B. A single polio dose received at any time in infancy
- C. Three documented doses of inactivated polio vaccine before travel
- D. Documentary proof of natural polio immunity
- E. A recent negative stool sample for poliovirus
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Long-stay travellers leaving an affected country may be required to show a polio dose received between 4 weeks and 12 months before departure, documented on the certificate. The measure aims to stop travellers exporting the virus across borders.

Childhood doses alone, natural immunity or stool testing do not satisfy the requirement.
MCQ
Which is an absolute contraindication to the live 17D yellow fever vaccine?
- A. Age over 60 years
- B. Well-controlled HIV with a CD4 count of 400
- C. Symptomatic HIV with a CD4 count of 150
- D. A remote egg allergy
- E. Breastfeeding a child over 12 months
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Significant immunocompromise, including symptomatic HIV or a CD4 count below 200, contraindicates this live vaccine because it can replicate unchecked. Stable HIV with a CD4 count of at least 200 is acceptable.

Age over 60, breastfeeding and egg allergy are cautions weighed against the risk of travel, not absolute bars.
MCQ
Which traveller group carries a disproportionate share of imported malaria, typhoid and hepatitis A?
- A. Short-stay business travellers on brief corporate city trips
- B. Travellers visiting friends and relatives back home
- C. Package-holiday tourists staying in beach resorts
- D. Cruise-ship passengers on ocean voyages
- E. First-time leisure travellers to western Europe
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Travellers visiting friends and relatives carry much of the imported malaria, typhoid and hepatitis A, because they stay longer, live in local households and take fewer precautions, yet seek pre-travel advice least often.

The other groups generally face lower or better-mitigated risk for these infections.