Questions
Viral Infections of the Fetus and Newborn — Questions
Study questions for Viral Infections of the Fetus and Newborn.
Mock Exam mode
Sit this set one question at a time. Multiple-choice questions mark themselves; written questions reveal a tickable mark scheme so you can score your own answer. You get a combined score at the end.
12 questions: 8 MCQ, 4 written.
High prioritySAQList the risk factors for transmission of herpes simplex virus to the neonate. [6]
Model answer
- Maternal first-episode (primary) genital infection near delivery: the single biggest factor, with transmission of ~30 to 50% against ~3% for recurrent disease.
- Absence of protective maternal antibody: a primary infection means little or no transplacental antibody to protect the infant.
- Viral shedding or active genital lesions at the time of vaginal delivery.
- Prolonged rupture of membranes (beyond about 4 to 6 hours).
- Breaches of the infant’s skin barrier, notably the use of fetal scalp electrodes or instrumental delivery.
- Prematurity, which compounds the newborn’s vulnerability.
High priorityExam-styleA neonate presents in the second week of life with a septic-looking illness, seizures and deranged liver function but no rash. Outline the differential diagnosis and the specific investigations you would request. [6]
Model answer
Differential diagnosis. The absent rash does not exclude neonatal herpes: up to a third of central nervous system disease never shows vesicles, and a second-week onset with seizures and hepatitis fits central nervous system or disseminated herpes. Bacterial sepsis and meningitis must be covered. Neonatal enteroviral and parechoviral infection produces an almost indistinguishable sepsis-like picture with hepatitis and coagulopathy. Disseminated cytomegalovirus and an inborn error of metabolism complete the list.
Investigations. Herpes simplex virus polymerase chain reaction on blood and cerebrospinal fluid, and on surface swabs (mouth, conjunctivae, nasopharynx, rectum) and any lesion; a lumbar puncture is mandatory, and a negative cerebrospinal fluid result does not exclude the diagnosis. Enterovirus and parechovirus polymerase chain reaction on cerebrospinal fluid, sent even without pleocytosis. Blood culture and the standard sepsis screen. Liver transaminases and coagulation studies to define disseminated disease. Cytomegalovirus urine polymerase chain reaction. Neuroimaging for central nervous system involvement. Empirical intravenous aciclovir is started while the results are awaited.
- MCQ
A fetus develops non-immune hydrops after maternal parvovirus B19 infection. What is the mechanism, and the intervention that changes the outcome?
- A. Red-cell aplasia and anaemia; intrauterine transfusion
- B. Placental insufficiency; immediate delivery by caesarean
- C. Viral myocarditis; maternal antiviral therapy
- D. Teratogenic organ damage; offer of termination
- E. Immune haemolysis; maternal immunoglobulin therapy
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Parvovirus B19 uses the blood group P antigen to infect erythroid progenitor cells, halting fetal red-cell production. The resulting severe anaemia causes high-output cardiac failure and non-immune hydrops. The fetus is monitored with serial ultrasound and middle cerebral artery Doppler, which detects the anaemia before hydrops is established; intrauterine red-cell transfusion takes survival in severe hydrops from near zero to over 80%. Post-exposure immunoglobulin is not recommended, because the maternal viraemia has usually passed by diagnosis.
- MCQ
A neonate is born to a mother who is HBsAg-positive. What is the correct immunoprophylaxis?
- A. Hepatitis B vaccine alone, given at six weeks
- B. Hepatitis B vaccine and immunoglobulin within 12 hours
- C. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin alone within 12 hours of birth
- D. Neonatal antiviral therapy for the first six months
- E. Caesarean delivery with deferred vaccination
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Every infant of an HBsAg-positive mother receives both the hepatitis B vaccine and hepatitis B immunoglobulin within 12 hours of birth, combining active and passive immunisation, with the vaccine course then completed on schedule. Hepatitis B is transmitted predominantly at delivery: an HBeAg-positive mother transmits to 80 to 90% of infants without prophylaxis, and infection at birth becomes chronic in about ~90% of cases. Caesarean section is not indicated to prevent transmission.
- MCQ
A pregnant woman acquires a first (primary) genital herpes simplex infection late in pregnancy. Compared with a woman who has recurrent genital herpes, how does the risk of neonatal herpes differ?
- A. Much higher for the primary infection
- B. Lower, as primary infection is usually silent
- C. About the same for both, near 3%
- D. Higher only after prolonged membrane rupture
- E. Negligible, transferred antibody protects the infant
Show answer
Correct answer: A
A first (primary) genital infection acquired late in pregnancy leaves no time for the mother to make and transfer protective antibody, so the infant attack rate is ~30 to 50%. A recurrence in a woman with established antibody carries a rate of only ~3%. Around ~85% of neonatal herpes is acquired from the maternal genital tract at delivery, and about ~90% of mothers who transmit have no recognised history of genital herpes, so a reassuring history does not exclude the risk.
- MCQ
Congenital rubella syndrome is classically associated with which triad, and when in pregnancy is the risk greatest?
- A. Deafness, hydrops and hepatitis, third trimester
- B. Microcephaly, limb hypoplasia and scarring, second trimester
- C. Chorioretinitis, calcification and seizures, any trimester
- D. Cataracts, anaemia and thrombocytopenia, periconceptional
- E. Deafness, cataracts and heart disease, first trimester
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The classic congenital rubella triad is sensorineural deafness, cataracts and congenital heart disease (typically patent ductus arteriosus or branch pulmonary artery stenosis). The risk falls steeply through gestation: maternal rubella with rash in the first 12 weeks transmits in 70 to 85% and causes the full syndrome, while the teratogenic risk is negligible after 17 weeks. Deafness is the commonest isolated defect. Rubella is vaccine-preventable, the key contrast with cytomegalovirus.
- MCQ
Maternal chickenpox poses the greatest risk of severe neonatal varicella when the maternal rash appears in which window?
- A. More than five days before the delivery date
- B. During the first trimester of pregnancy only
- C. Five days before to two days after delivery
- D. More than three weeks after the delivery
- E. At any time, as the risk remains constant
Show answer
Correct answer: C
When the maternal rash appears from five days before to two days after delivery, the infant is exposed to virus without transferred maternal antibody, and neonatal varicella then carries a mortality of 23 to 30%. A rash more than five days before delivery allows antibody to transfer and the illness is usually mild. First-trimester infection causes congenital varicella syndrome, a different disease. Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin is given to the newborn whose mother develops chickenpox in this peripartum window.
- MCQ
Which finding is the characteristic signature of congenital varicella syndrome?
- A. Periventricular calcification with deafness
- B. Cataracts with congenital heart disease
- C. Vesicular rash with keratoconjunctivitis
- D. Dermatomal scarring with limb hypoplasia
- E. Non-immune hydrops with severe fetal anaemia
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Congenital varicella syndrome follows maternal chickenpox in the first or, less often, second trimester, and is thought to represent a zoster-like reactivation in the infected fetus, which explains its dermatomal pattern. Its signature is cicatricial scarring of the skin in a dermatomal distribution with hypoplasia of the underlying limb, accompanied by eye and brain defects and, in 15 to 23%, gastrointestinal malformations. Periventricular calcification with deafness suggests cytomegalovirus, and cataracts with heart disease suggest rubella.
- MCQ
Which statement about the three presentations of neonatal herpes simplex infection is correct?
- A. Skin-eye-mouth disease carries the highest mortality of the three
- B. A third of central-nervous-system disease shows no skin vesicles
- C. Disseminated disease is excluded when skin vesicles are absent
- D. Central-nervous-system disease appears within 72 hours of birth
- E. Disseminated disease characteristically spares liver and lungs
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Neonatal herpes takes three forms: skin, eye and mouth (~45%); central nervous system (~30%); and disseminated (~25%). The absence of a rash is treacherous, because up to a third of babies with herpes encephalitis never develop skin vesicles, and vesicles may also be absent in disseminated disease. Disease in the first 72 hours points away from herpes; central nervous system disease typically appears in the second to third week. The diagnosis must therefore be considered in any neonate with seizures, unexplained sepsis or hepatitis even when the skin is clear.
- MCQ
Why is a positive cytomegalovirus or rubella IgG in a newborn not used to diagnose congenital infection?
- A. IgG is too insensitive to detect in newborns
- B. IgG appears only after the third month of age
- C. Maternal IgG crosses the placenta
- D. IgG cross-reacts with other herpesviruses
- E. IgG indicates immunity rather than active infection
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Diagnosis in the infant is virological, not serological. Maternal IgG crosses the placenta, so a positive IgG in a newborn usually reflects the mother’s past exposure rather than the baby’s own infection, and finding it is neither diagnostic nor reassuring. Neonatal diagnosis therefore rests on detecting the virus itself by polymerase chain reaction on the right specimen, urine and saliva for cytomegalovirus, within the first three weeks of life.
SAQDescribe best practice for the diagnosis of neonatal herpes simplex virus infection. [5]
Model answer
- Keep a high index of suspicion, even without skin vesicles: around a third of central-nervous-system and disseminated cases have no rash, so the diagnosis must be considered in any septic-looking neonate.
- Surface swabs from the conjunctivae, mouth, nasopharynx and rectum for HSV polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and culture.
- Swab or scraping of any skin or mucosal lesion for HSV PCR (and culture); direct immunofluorescence is faster but less sensitive.
- Cerebrospinal fluid HSV PCR in every suspected case (lumbar puncture even when disease looks confined to skin, eye and mouth), as PCR is the test of choice for central-nervous-system involvement.
- Whole blood or plasma HSV PCR to detect viraemia. Serology is not helpful at presentation, and a persistently positive cerebrospinal-fluid PCR at the end of treatment guides extending therapy.
SAQOutline the treatment of confirmed herpes simplex virus infection in pregnancy. [4]
Model answer
- First-episode genital herpes: treat the episode with oral aciclovir or valaciclovir, or intravenous aciclovir if disease is severe.
- Suppressive aciclovir or valaciclovir from 36 weeks of gestation, which reduces recurrences and viral shedding at term and so lowers the need for caesarean section and the risk of neonatal transmission.
- Mode of delivery: caesarean section if there are active genital lesions or prodromal symptoms at the onset of labour, particularly with a first episode near term; vaginal delivery is acceptable when no lesions are present.
- Severe or disseminated maternal disease (for example HSV hepatitis) is a medical emergency treated with intravenous aciclovir. Aciclovir is regarded as safe in pregnancy.