Questions
Viral Infections in Pregnancy & Neonate — Questions
Study questions for the Viral Infections in Pregnancy & Neonate topic — exam-style, clinical-scenario and FAQ.
Mock Exam mode
Sit this set one question at a time. Multiple-choice questions mark themselves; written questions reveal a tickable mark scheme so you can score your own answer. You get a combined score at the end.
31 questions: 19 MCQ, 12 written.
High priorityClinical scenarioA term neonate has symptomatic congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) disease with central nervous system involvement (microcephaly and sensorineural hearing loss). (a) What antiviral treatment is indicated, and for how long? (b) What is the main toxicity to monitor? (c) Which infants with congenital CMV are generally not treated? [6]
Model answer
a. Oral valganciclovir for 6 months (intravenous ganciclovir if oral therapy is not tolerated). Treating central-nervous-system-involved symptomatic disease improves hearing and neurodevelopmental outcomes.
b. Neutropenia; the full blood count is monitored through the course.
c. Asymptomatic infants, and those with isolated hearing loss without other disease, are generally not treated, because the benefit does not outweigh the toxicity; the decision is specialist-led.
High prioritySAQList the risk factors for transmission of herpes simplex virus to the neonate. [6]
Model answer
- Maternal first-episode (primary) genital infection near delivery: the single biggest factor, with transmission of ~30 to 50% against ~3% for recurrent disease.
- Absence of protective maternal antibody: a primary infection means little or no transplacental antibody to protect the infant.
- Viral shedding or active genital lesions at the time of vaginal delivery.
- Prolonged rupture of membranes (beyond about 4 to 6 hours).
- Breaches of the infant’s skin barrier, notably the use of fetal scalp electrodes or instrumental delivery.
- Prematurity, which compounds the newborn’s vulnerability.
High prioritySAQOutline how the epidemiology of congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) differs from that of congenital rubella, and the implication for prevention. [5]
Model answer
A complete answer contrasts vaccine availability, the window of risk and the maternal infections that transmit, then draws the preventive implication.
Congenital rubella. Rubella is vaccine-preventable and near-eliminated wherever coverage is high. Fetal damage follows maternal primary infection in the first trimester, so prevention is achieved by immunising women before pregnancy.
Congenital CMV. CMV has no licensed vaccine, transmits throughout gestation, and follows both primary and non-primary maternal infection. Where rubella is controlled, CMV is now the commonest congenital viral infection.
Implication. Without a vaccine, CMV prevention rests on hygiene counselling of seronegative pregnant women rather than on the pre-pregnancy immunisation that controls rubella.
High priorityExam-styleA neonate presents in the second week of life with a septic-looking illness, seizures and deranged liver function but no rash. Outline the differential diagnosis and the specific investigations you would request. [6]
Model answer
Differential diagnosis. The absent rash does not exclude neonatal herpes: up to a third of central nervous system disease never shows vesicles, and a second-week onset with seizures and hepatitis fits central nervous system or disseminated herpes. Bacterial sepsis and meningitis must be covered. Neonatal enteroviral and parechoviral infection produces an almost indistinguishable sepsis-like picture with hepatitis and coagulopathy. Disseminated cytomegalovirus and an inborn error of metabolism complete the list.
Investigations. Herpes simplex virus polymerase chain reaction on blood and cerebrospinal fluid, and on surface swabs (mouth, conjunctivae, nasopharynx, rectum) and any lesion; a lumbar puncture is mandatory, and a negative cerebrospinal fluid result does not exclude the diagnosis. Enterovirus and parechovirus polymerase chain reaction on cerebrospinal fluid, sent even without pleocytosis. Blood culture and the standard sepsis screen. Liver transaminases and coagulation studies to define disseminated disease. Cytomegalovirus urine polymerase chain reaction. Neuroimaging for central nervous system involvement. Empirical intravenous aciclovir is started while the results are awaited.
High priorityExam-styleComment on the relationship between Zika virus infection and microcephaly. [10]
Model answer
A complete answer describes the clinical association, the biological mechanism and the determinants of risk.
The association
The 2015 to 2016 American epidemic was accompanied by a marked rise in infants born with microcephaly, first recognised in north-east Brazil, which drew the link between maternal Zika infection and congenital brain injury and prompted a WHO public health emergency in 2016.
Congenital Zika syndrome
Microcephaly is the hallmark of a broader congenital Zika syndrome that also includes intracranial calcification, ventriculomegaly, ocular lesions such as macular scarring, congenital contractures and sensorineural hearing loss, with later neurodevelopmental impairment; infection can also cause miscarriage and stillbirth.
Mechanism
Zika virus has a tropism for fetal neural progenitor cells, in which it impairs proliferation and causes cell death, interrupting cortical development; the placenta and fetal tissues sustain the infection that seeds the fetal brain.
Determinants of risk
The risk is greatest with infection in the first trimester, though injury can follow later infection. Because about 80% of maternal infections are asymptomatic, exposure is often unrecognised, which is why maternal serology and fetal ultrasound surveillance are central to management.
High priorityExam-styleDiscuss the evidence supporting Zika virus infection as a cause of congenital microcephaly. [10]
Model answer
A complete answer marshals the epidemiological, virological and biological lines of evidence that together establish causation rather than mere association.
Epidemiological evidence
The temporal and geographic coincidence of the microcephaly surge with the wave of Zika transmission, the sharp rise above expected baseline rates, and the reproduction of the association across affected regions and in later outbreaks support a causal link. The greatest risk with first-trimester infection provides a biological gradient consistent with a teratogen.
Direct virological evidence
Zika viral RNA and antigen have been detected in the amniotic fluid, fetal brain tissue and placenta of affected pregnancies, and virus has been recovered from the brains of infants with microcephaly, placing the virus at the site of injury.
Biological plausibility
Zika virus infects and kills neural progenitor cells in cell and animal models, and infection of pregnant animals reproduces fetal brain injury, providing an experimental mechanism.
Judgement
Applying causal criteria of strength, consistency, temporality, biological gradient, plausibility and experimental support, the evidence is judged sufficient to conclude that Zika virus infection causes congenital microcephaly and the wider congenital Zika syndrome.
High priorityExam-styleExplain why hepatitis E in pregnancy is dangerous, including the genotypes involved, the magnitude of the risk, and the proposed mechanisms. [5]
Model answer
A complete answer names the responsible genotypes, quantifies the maternal and fetal risk, and gives the leading explanations for the severity.
The clinical problem
The waterborne genotypes 1 and 2 acquired in the third trimester can progress to fulminant hepatic failure. Genotype 1 is the most common and best-documented cause, but genotype 2 also poses a severe threat, with high maternal mortality and miscarriage rates reported during outbreaks. Maternal case-fatality in outbreak settings is high, in the order of 20 to 30%, far exceeding the mortality of hepatitis E in non-pregnant adults or of other acute viral hepatitides in pregnancy. Fetal and neonatal outcomes are also poor, with high rates of miscarriage, stillbirth, premature delivery and vertical transmission. This severity is a feature of the genotype 1 and 2 epidemics of Asia and Africa; the zoonotic genotype 3 of high-income settings does not show the same risk in pregnancy.
Proposed mechanisms
The reason for the exaggerated severity is not fully settled, but several contributing factors are recognised:
- Higher viral replication: pregnant women with hepatitis E tend to have higher HEV viral loads.
- Hormonal influence: the high oestrogen and progesterone levels of pregnancy modulate viral replication and the immune response.
- Immune adaptation of pregnancy: the shift away from a T-helper-1 response that protects the fetus may blunt antiviral immunity, allowing more severe hepatic injury.
Hepatitis E is therefore an important cause of maternal mortality during outbreaks, and supportive care with prompt recognition of acute liver failure is essential, since ribavirin is contraindicated in pregnancy.
- MCQ
A fetus develops non-immune hydrops after maternal parvovirus B19 infection. What is the mechanism, and the intervention that changes the outcome?
- A. Red-cell aplasia and anaemia; intrauterine transfusion
- B. Placental insufficiency; immediate delivery by caesarean
- C. Viral myocarditis; maternal antiviral therapy
- D. Teratogenic organ damage; offer of termination
- E. Immune haemolysis; maternal immunoglobulin therapy
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Parvovirus B19 uses the blood group P antigen to infect erythroid progenitor cells, halting fetal red-cell production. The resulting severe anaemia causes high-output cardiac failure and non-immune hydrops. The fetus is monitored with serial ultrasound and middle cerebral artery Doppler, which detects the anaemia before hydrops is established; intrauterine red-cell transfusion takes survival in severe hydrops from near zero to over 80%. Post-exposure immunoglobulin is not recommended, because the maternal viraemia has usually passed by diagnosis.
- MCQ
A neonate is born to a mother who is HBsAg-positive. What is the correct immunoprophylaxis?
- A. Hepatitis B vaccine alone, given at six weeks
- B. Hepatitis B vaccine and immunoglobulin within 12 hours
- C. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin alone within 12 hours of birth
- D. Neonatal antiviral therapy for the first six months
- E. Caesarean delivery with deferred vaccination
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Every infant of an HBsAg-positive mother receives both the hepatitis B vaccine and hepatitis B immunoglobulin within 12 hours of birth, combining active and passive immunisation, with the vaccine course then completed on schedule. Hepatitis B is transmitted predominantly at delivery: an HBeAg-positive mother transmits to 80 to 90% of infants without prophylaxis, and infection at birth becomes chronic in about ~90% of cases. Caesarean section is not indicated to prevent transmission.
- MCQ
A newborn has symptomatic congenital cytomegalovirus with abnormal neuroimaging. What is the appropriate antiviral course?
- A. Six weeks of valganciclovir
- B. No antiviral; monitor only
- C. A single dose of immunoglobulin
- D. Six months of valganciclovir
- E. Two weeks of intravenous ganciclovir
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Treatment is decided by phenotype. Any central nervous system involvement, defined broadly to include abnormal neuroimaging, microcephaly, chorioretinitis or hearing loss, is treated for six months; symptomatic disease without central nervous system involvement is treated for six weeks. The drug of choice is oral valganciclovir at 16 mg/kg per dose twice daily, started before four weeks of age. A randomised trial established that six months preserves hearing and neurodevelopment better than six weeks. Asymptomatic infants with normal hearing are not treated.
- MCQ
A newborn's saliva cytomegalovirus polymerase chain reaction is positive. Why must this be confirmed, and how?
- A. Saliva is insensitive; confirm on serology
- B. Saliva reflects maternal infection; confirm on serology
- C. Breast-milk virus gives false positives; confirm on urine
- D. Saliva cross-reacts with herpesviruses; confirm on culture
- E. Saliva detects only postnatal infection; confirm on blood
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Saliva is easy to collect but prone to a false positive from cytomegalovirus in breast milk retained in the mouth, so a positive saliva result is confirmed on urine, which is the specimen of choice, and saliva is collected at least one to two hours after a feed. Virus must be detected within the first three weeks of life to prove congenital infection, because after three weeks acquisition through the birth canal or breast milk can no longer be excluded.
- MCQ
A pregnant woman acquires a first (primary) genital herpes simplex infection late in pregnancy. Compared with a woman who has recurrent genital herpes, how does the risk of neonatal herpes differ?
- A. Much higher for the primary infection
- B. Lower, as primary infection is usually silent
- C. About the same for both, near 3%
- D. Higher only after prolonged membrane rupture
- E. Negligible, transferred antibody protects the infant
Show answer
Correct answer: A
A first (primary) genital infection acquired late in pregnancy leaves no time for the mother to make and transfer protective antibody, so the infant attack rate is ~30 to 50%. A recurrence in a woman with established antibody carries a rate of only ~3%. Around ~85% of neonatal herpes is acquired from the maternal genital tract at delivery, and about ~90% of mothers who transmit have no recognised history of genital herpes, so a reassuring history does not exclude the risk.
- MCQ
A susceptible pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox. What is the recommended post-exposure measure?
- A. The live varicella vaccine administered immediately
- B. A short course of oral corticosteroids
- C. Reassurance alone, since no measure is needed here
- D. Immediate delivery to protect the fetus
- E. Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin within 96 hours
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin, given as soon as possible and ideally within 96 hours of exposure, is the mainstay for high-risk susceptible contacts: susceptible pregnant women, the immunocompromised, and neonates whose mothers develop varicella around delivery.
The live vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy, and immunoglobulin attenuates rather than always prevents disease.
- MCQ
A woman has a confirmed primary cytomegalovirus infection in the first trimester, before fetal infection is established. Which intervention reduces transmission to the fetus?
- A. Oral valaciclovir, 8 g daily
- B. Cytomegalovirus hyperimmune globulin
- C. Intravenous ganciclovir
- D. Maternal valganciclovir for six months
- E. Elective caesarean section
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Oral valaciclovir, 8 g a day, started before 16 weeks for a first-trimester or periconceptional primary infection, reduces transmission to the fetus (odds ratio ~0.37) and shifts the balance towards milder, asymptomatic infection. It is continued until a negative amniotic-fluid result. Cytomegalovirus hyperimmune globulin, by contrast, does not work: two randomised trials found no benefit and it has been abandoned. Ganciclovir and valganciclovir are neonatal, not maternal, treatments.
- MCQ
Congenital rubella syndrome is classically associated with which triad, and when in pregnancy is the risk greatest?
- A. Deafness, hydrops and hepatitis, third trimester
- B. Microcephaly, limb hypoplasia and scarring, second trimester
- C. Chorioretinitis, calcification and seizures, any trimester
- D. Cataracts, anaemia and thrombocytopenia, periconceptional
- E. Deafness, cataracts and heart disease, first trimester
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The classic congenital rubella triad is sensorineural deafness, cataracts and congenital heart disease (typically patent ductus arteriosus or branch pulmonary artery stenosis). The risk falls steeply through gestation: maternal rubella with rash in the first 12 weeks transmits in 70 to 85% and causes the full syndrome, while the teratogenic risk is negligible after 17 weeks. Deafness is the commonest isolated defect. Rubella is vaccine-preventable, the key contrast with cytomegalovirus.
- MCQ
Congenital Zika syndrome is most likely to follow maternal infection during which period, and its hallmark feature is:
- A. Third trimester; neonatal hepatitis
- B. Peri-conception; limb reduction defects only
- C. Second trimester; cardiac septal defects
- D. First trimester; microcephaly
- E. Any trimester; deafness alone
Show answer
Correct answer: D
First-trimester infection carries the highest risk, and microcephaly is the hallmark, accompanied by intracranial calcification, ventriculomegaly, ocular lesions, contractures and hearing loss; infection can also cause miscarriage and stillbirth.
The other combinations misstate the timing or the pattern of injury.
- MCQ
How do the risk of transmission and the severity of fetal damage change as maternal primary cytomegalovirus infection occurs later in pregnancy?
- A. Both transmission and severity rise
- B. Both transmission and severity fall
- C. Transmission falls while severity rises
- D. Transmission rises while severity falls
- E. Neither changes with gestational age
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Transmission to the fetus rises steadily through gestation, from ~9% for a periconceptional infection to ~40% in the third trimester, while the severity of damage moves the opposite way: severe neurological injury follows almost only first-trimester infection, and after the first trimester the risk falls sharply and is largely limited to hearing loss. A virus acquired late is therefore more likely to reach the fetus but far less likely to harm it seriously.
- MCQ
How is congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection confirmed in a neonate?
- A. CMV IgG on neonatal serum at six weeks
- B. CMV DNA PCR on urine or saliva within 21 days
- C. Maternal CMV IgM in the third trimester
- D. CMV DNA PCR on umbilical cord blood at three months
- E. Viral culture of cerebrospinal fluid at birth
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Detecting the virus by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) on urine or saliva within the first 21 days of life confirms congenital infection. After 21 days a positive result cannot be separated from the common, benign infection acquired around birth, so the timing of the sample is what makes the diagnosis. A retrospective dried blood spot, the stored newborn screening card, is the fallback when a child presents late.
Neonatal IgG reflects transplacental maternal antibody; maternal IgM does not confirm fetal infection; cord blood is prone to maternal contamination; and culture is slower and less sensitive than PCR.
- MCQ
In a high-seroprevalence population, which statement about the source of congenital cytomegalovirus is correct?
- A. Almost all cases follow maternal primary infection
- B. Latent-virus reactivation spares the fetus
- C. Immunity blocks reinfection with a new strain
- D. Non-primary infection causes more severe fetal disease
- E. Two-thirds of cases arise in immune mothers
Show answer
Correct answer: E
A primary infection in a seronegative woman carries the highest per-event risk of transmission, but pre-existing immunity does not fully protect, because a seropositive woman can transmit through reactivation or reinfection with a new strain. Because the seroimmune population is so large, about two-thirds of congenital cytomegalovirus arises in already-immune mothers, each pregnancy carrying a low individual risk. Once the fetus is infected, primary versus non-primary infection no longer predicts severity.
- MCQ
In the South African setting, what is the significance of detecting congenital cytomegalovirus in an HIV-exposed neonate?
- A. It confirms that the infant has acquired HIV
- B. It indicates failure of maternal antiretroviral therapy
- C. It requires an immediate change of maternal regimen
- D. It is an incidental finding of no clinical consequence
- E. It flags higher in-utero HIV transmission risk
Show answer
Correct answer: E
In a Gauteng cohort, congenital cytomegalovirus was commoner in HIV-exposed than HIV-unexposed neonates (~5.2% against ~1.4%), and a congenitally infected HIV-exposed neonate carried roughly a twentyfold higher risk of acquiring HIV in utero, independent of maternal CD4 count or treatment duration. A positive cytomegalovirus result in this setting therefore flags a pregnancy at high risk of vertical HIV transmission, rather than confirming infant HIV in itself.
- MCQ
Maternal chickenpox poses the greatest risk of severe neonatal varicella when the maternal rash appears in which window?
- A. More than five days before the delivery date
- B. During the first trimester of pregnancy only
- C. Five days before to two days after delivery
- D. More than three weeks after the delivery
- E. At any time, as the risk remains constant
Show answer
Correct answer: C
When the maternal rash appears from five days before to two days after delivery, the infant is exposed to virus without transferred maternal antibody, and neonatal varicella then carries a mortality of 23 to 30%. A rash more than five days before delivery allows antibody to transfer and the illness is usually mild. First-trimester infection causes congenital varicella syndrome, a different disease. Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin is given to the newborn whose mother develops chickenpox in this peripartum window.
- MCQ
What is the commonest long-term sequela of congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection?
- A. Congenital cataract
- B. Patent ductus arteriosus
- C. Sensorineural hearing loss
- D. Limb reduction defect
- E. Cleft palate
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Sensorineural hearing loss is the commonest long-term consequence of congenital CMV and the leading non-genetic cause of childhood hearing loss. It may be present at birth or have delayed, progressive onset over the first few years, so infected infants need audiological follow-up even when they appear normal at birth and even when the infection was asymptomatic.
Cataract and patent ductus arteriosus point to congenital rubella; limb reduction defects suggest varicella; cleft palate is not a CMV sequela.
- MCQ
When is amniotic-fluid polymerase chain reaction reliable for diagnosing fetal cytomegalovirus infection?
- A. Immediately after the maternal infection is confirmed
- B. From ~17 weeks, and 6 to 8 weeks after infection
- C. From 12 weeks, whatever the timing of infection
- D. Only in the third trimester, after 28 weeks of gestation
- E. At any time in pregnancy, since sensitivity is constant
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Amniotic-fluid polymerase chain reaction works because the infected fetus excretes virus in its urine into the amniotic fluid, so two intervals must both be met: at least 6 to 8 weeks after the maternal infection, and from about 17 weeks of gestation, by which time placental transfer and fetal renal excretion have occurred. Under those conditions sensitivity is 90 to 95%; the residual false-negative rate of ~8% falls mainly on fetuses without injury.
- MCQ
Which finding is the characteristic signature of congenital varicella syndrome?
- A. Periventricular calcification with deafness
- B. Cataracts with congenital heart disease
- C. Vesicular rash with keratoconjunctivitis
- D. Dermatomal scarring with limb hypoplasia
- E. Non-immune hydrops with severe fetal anaemia
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Congenital varicella syndrome follows maternal chickenpox in the first or, less often, second trimester, and is thought to represent a zoster-like reactivation in the infected fetus, which explains its dermatomal pattern. Its signature is cicatricial scarring of the skin in a dermatomal distribution with hypoplasia of the underlying limb, accompanied by eye and brain defects and, in 15 to 23%, gastrointestinal malformations. Periventricular calcification with deafness suggests cytomegalovirus, and cataracts with heart disease suggest rubella.
- MCQ
Which statement about the three presentations of neonatal herpes simplex infection is correct?
- A. Skin-eye-mouth disease carries the highest mortality of the three
- B. A third of central-nervous-system disease shows no skin vesicles
- C. Disseminated disease is excluded when skin vesicles are absent
- D. Central-nervous-system disease appears within 72 hours of birth
- E. Disseminated disease characteristically spares liver and lungs
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Neonatal herpes takes three forms: skin, eye and mouth (~45%); central nervous system (~30%); and disseminated (~25%). The absence of a rash is treacherous, because up to a third of babies with herpes encephalitis never develop skin vesicles, and vesicles may also be absent in disseminated disease. Disease in the first 72 hours points away from herpes; central nervous system disease typically appears in the second to third week. The diagnosis must therefore be considered in any neonate with seizures, unexplained sepsis or hepatitis even when the skin is clear.
- MCQ
Why is a positive cytomegalovirus or rubella IgG in a newborn not used to diagnose congenital infection?
- A. IgG is too insensitive to detect in newborns
- B. IgG appears only after the third month of age
- C. Maternal IgG crosses the placenta
- D. IgG cross-reacts with other herpesviruses
- E. IgG indicates immunity rather than active infection
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Diagnosis in the infant is virological, not serological. Maternal IgG crosses the placenta, so a positive IgG in a newborn usually reflects the mother’s past exposure rather than the baby’s own infection, and finding it is neither diagnostic nor reassuring. Neonatal diagnosis therefore rests on detecting the virus itself by polymerase chain reaction on the right specimen, urine and saliva for cytomegalovirus, within the first three weeks of life.
Clinical scenarioA woman who is 10 weeks pregnant returns from a holiday in the Caribbean with a few days of low-grade fever, a maculopapular rash, joint pains and red eyes, now resolved. a) What is the most likely arboviral diagnosis? [1] b) Which laboratory tests would you use to confirm it and what interpretive pitfall must you keep in mind? [3] c) What is the principal fetal concern and how is the pregnancy monitored? [2] d) What advice would you give her partner? [1]
Model answer
a. Zika virus infection. The mild febrile illness with rash, arthralgia and non-purulent conjunctivitis after travel to an endemic region is characteristic (dengue and chikungunya are the main differentials).
b. Reverse-transcriptase PCR on blood and urine (urine has a longer detection window), with serology if presentation is later; the key pitfall is strong flavivirus cross-reactivity, so a positive IgM needs confirmation by plaque-reduction neutralisation and interpretation is harder with prior flavivirus exposure.
c. The concern is congenital Zika syndrome, particularly microcephaly, greatest after first-trimester infection; monitoring is by serial fetal ultrasound, with amniotic-fluid testing where indicated and paediatric assessment of the neonate.
d. Because Zika persists in semen and is sexually transmitted, the partner should use condoms or abstain for the recommended period to avoid re-exposing her during the pregnancy.
SAQCompare the risk of fetal transmission and of symptomatic congenital disease when a pregnant woman acquires a primary cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection versus a non-primary infection (reactivation or reinfection). [5]
Model answer
A complete answer contrasts the two on transmission rate, on severity once the fetus is infected, and on their relative contribution to the overall burden.
Primary maternal infection. A first infection in pregnancy carries the highest vertical transmission, around 30 to 40% across the trimesters, because the mother has no pre-existing immunity to limit viraemia.
Non-primary infection. Reactivation or reinfection in an already-immune woman transmits far less often, of the order of 1%, because pre-existing maternal immunity is substantially protective.
Severity and the absolute burden. Once the fetus is infected, the type of maternal infection no longer reliably predicts the outcome: symptomatic disease at birth and long-term sequelae are broadly similar either way, and about 10 to 15% of infected infants are symptomatic at birth. Because seropositive women so greatly outnumber those having a first infection, most congenitally infected infants are born to immune mothers despite the low per-pregnancy risk, so non-primary infection contributes a large share of the absolute caseload where seroprevalence is high.
SAQDescribe best practice for the diagnosis of neonatal herpes simplex virus infection. [5]
Model answer
- Keep a high index of suspicion, even without skin vesicles: around a third of central-nervous-system and disseminated cases have no rash, so the diagnosis must be considered in any septic-looking neonate.
- Surface swabs from the conjunctivae, mouth, nasopharynx and rectum for HSV polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and culture.
- Swab or scraping of any skin or mucosal lesion for HSV PCR (and culture); direct immunofluorescence is faster but less sensitive.
- Cerebrospinal fluid HSV PCR in every suspected case (lumbar puncture even when disease looks confined to skin, eye and mouth), as PCR is the test of choice for central-nervous-system involvement.
- Whole blood or plasma HSV PCR to detect viraemia. Serology is not helpful at presentation, and a persistently positive cerebrospinal-fluid PCR at the end of treatment guides extending therapy.
SAQExplain how cytomegalovirus (CMV) immunoglobulin G (IgG) avidity testing helps date a maternal infection in pregnancy. [5]
Model answer
A complete answer explains what avidity measures, how it changes after primary infection, and how that dates the infection.
What avidity measures. Avidity is the strength with which IgG binds its antigen. Antibody from a recent primary infection binds weakly (low avidity) and matures to high avidity over about the following six months as germinal-centre affinity maturation proceeds.
How it dates the infection. Low-avidity CMV IgG in early pregnancy indicates a primary infection within roughly the preceding three to four months, the window of highest risk for fetal transmission. High-avidity IgG indicates a past infection and a much lower risk to the fetus.
Why it matters. Avidity resolves the ambiguity of a positive CMV IgM, which can persist for months or be falsely positive, and so helps avoid unnecessary intervention when the infection is in fact long-standing.
SAQOutline the treatment of confirmed herpes simplex virus infection in pregnancy. [4]
Model answer
- First-episode genital herpes: treat the episode with oral aciclovir or valaciclovir, or intravenous aciclovir if disease is severe.
- Suppressive aciclovir or valaciclovir from 36 weeks of gestation, which reduces recurrences and viral shedding at term and so lowers the need for caesarean section and the risk of neonatal transmission.
- Mode of delivery: caesarean section if there are active genital lesions or prodromal symptoms at the onset of labour, particularly with a first episode near term; vaginal delivery is acceptable when no lesions are present.
- Severe or disseminated maternal disease (for example HSV hepatitis) is a medical emergency treated with intravenous aciclovir. Aciclovir is regarded as safe in pregnancy.