Questions
Viral Epidemiology — Questions
Study questions for the Viral Epidemiology topic — exam-style, clinical-scenario and FAQ.
Mock Exam mode
Sit this set one question at a time. Multiple-choice questions mark themselves; written questions reveal a tickable mark scheme so you can score your own answer. You get a combined score at the end.
42 questions: 39 MCQ, 3 written.
High prioritySAQDescribe the challenges of conducting surveillance in resource-limited settings. [5]
Model answer
Surveillance is often hardest where it is most needed, at the sites where emerging viruses first appear.
- Weak laboratory infrastructure. Limited testing capacity and unreliable supply chains delay or prevent confirmation, and reference testing may be far away.
- Incomplete vital registration. Many deaths go unregistered or uncertified, so mortality data are poor; verbal autopsy is sometimes the only tool.
- Under-reporting. Passive systems capture only a fraction of cases where access to care is low and reporting is not resourced.
- Workforce and funding gaps. Too few trained field epidemiologists and competing priorities limit timely analysis and response.
- Mitigations. Sentinel sites, community-based surveillance, mobile-phone reporting, simple tools and field-epidemiology training programmes extend reach at lower cost.
High prioritySAQDescribe the principles of viral surveillance. [5]
Model answer
Surveillance is the ongoing, systematic collection, analysis, interpretation and dissemination of health data, linked to action: “information for action”.
- Systematic and continuous. Data are gathered routinely against a standard case definition, not ad hoc.
- The surveillance cycle. Collection feeds analysis and interpretation, then dissemination, then public-health action, with feedback to the providers of the data; a weak link degrades the whole.
- Fit for purpose. Systems are chosen and judged against attributes that trade off, chiefly sensitivity, timeliness, representativeness and predictive value.
- A clinical trigger plus laboratory confirmation. Effective viral surveillance pairs a syndromic or clinical signal (influenza-like illness, acute flaccid paralysis) with laboratory confirmation and, increasingly, genomic and environmental data.
High prioritySAQIn a city of 1,000,000 people, 150,000 are currently infected with a virus. Calculate the prevalence of infection. Explain how the prevalence affects the predictive value of a screening test, and state when such a test is most trustworthy. [8]
Model answer
Prevalence = 150,000 / 1,000,000 = 15%, the proportion of the population infected at this point in time.
Predictive value depends on prevalence, not only on a test’s sensitivity and specificity. As prevalence rises, the positive predictive value (PPV, the chance that a positive result is a true positive) rises, and the negative predictive value (NPV, the chance that a negative result is a true negative) falls.
At low prevalence a larger share of positive results are false positives, even with a highly specific test, because the few true positives are outnumbered by false positives drawn from a large uninfected majority.
A screening test is therefore most trustworthy for confirming disease when applied in a higher-prevalence setting, such as during an outbreak or in a high-risk group. A positive result in a very-low-prevalence setting should be confirmed before acting.
- MCQ
A seroprevalence survey for a virus primarily reflects:
- A. Current active infection
- B. Recent incidence over one month
- C. Ongoing viral shedding
- D. Protection against reinfection
- E. Cumulative past infection
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Because neutralising antibody often persists for years or life, seroprevalence measures a population’s cumulative experience of a virus rather than current activity. Reading it by age group shows how efficiently and how recently the virus has circulated.
It does not by itself indicate active infection, ongoing shedding, or guaranteed protection against reinfection.
- MCQ
A study that begins with people who have a disease and compares their past exposures with those of matched controls is a:
- A. Cross-sectional study
- B. Prospective cohort study
- C. Ecological study
- D. Case-control study
- E. Randomised controlled trial
Show answer
Correct answer: D
A case-control study is retrospective, starting from cases and matched controls and comparing their prior exposures. It is efficient for uncommon or slow diseases but is vulnerable to recall and selection bias.
A cohort works forward from exposure to outcome; a cross-sectional study is a single-time-point snapshot; and a trial assigns the exposure deliberately.
- MCQ
A viral disease maintained in a non-human reservoir usually cannot be:
- A. Diagnosed by molecular tests
- B. Prevented by vaccination
- C. Eradicated by controlling human infection alone
- D. Transmitted between humans
- E. Detected by routine syndromic and laboratory surveillance
Show answer
Correct answer: C
An animal reservoir sustains the virus independently of human immunity, so a zoonosis cannot be eradicated by controlling human infection alone. The absence of a reservoir was one of the decisive factors that made smallpox eradicable.
Such infections can still be diagnosed, vaccinated against, and kept under surveillance.
- MCQ
A virus that depends heavily on vertical transmission is under selective pressure to:
- A. Evolve toward lower virulence
- B. Maximise host mortality
- C. Sterilise its host
- D. Abandon its host entirely
- E. Depend on an arthropod vector
Show answer
Correct answer: A
A virus that relies on vertical transmission needs the host to survive and reproduce, so selection pushes it toward lower virulence, since killing or sterilising the host is a reproductive dead end.
Higher virulence is more readily tolerated by horizontally transmitted viruses, which do not depend on the host’s reproductive success to reach a new host.
- MCQ
A virus that replicates to high titre in the brain, at a site with no route to a body surface, will:
- A. Be shed efficiently in the saliva and respiratory secretions
- B. Be excreted in the urine
- C. Spread readily to close contacts
- D. Pass easily to the next host
- E. Reach a dead end and not be transmitted
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Virus produced at a site with no route to a body surface reaches a transmission dead end and is not shed, even when the infection there is severe or lethal.
Shedding requires a portal that communicates with the outside, which the brain and most internal organs do not provide.
- MCQ
A zoonotic virus whose human basic reproduction number (R0) is effectively zero will typically:
- A. Sustain a human epidemic unaided
- B. Spread efficiently person to person
- C. Persist by human transmission alone
- D. Need fresh reservoir exposure for each case
- E. Have lost its animal reservoir
Show answer
Correct answer: D
When the human R0 is near zero the virus cannot sustain human chains, so every case depends on fresh spillover from the reservoir, the pattern seen with Lassa fever in West Africa. Only once R0 approaches and passes one can sustained human transmission occur.
- MCQ
An epidemic is best defined as:
- A. Any occurrence of a serious viral disease
- B. Disease spreading rapidly across several continents
- C. A rise in incidence above the endemic baseline
- D. The steady background level of a disease
- E. Scattered unrelated cases in one area
Show answer
Correct answer: C
An epidemic is a rise in incidence that exceeds the expected endemic baseline for a population, implying unusually wide and rapid spread.
Multi-continent spread is a pandemic; the steady background level is endemic; and scattered unrelated cases are sporadic.
- MCQ
Chickenpox persists in communities of under 1,000 people, whereas measles needs a population of around 500,000 to remain endemic. The main reason is that:
- A. Varicella-zoster virus is more transmissible than measles
- B. Chickenpox confers only short-lived immunity
- C. Measles is maintained in an animal reservoir
- D. Zoster reactivation reseeds susceptibles years later
- E. Chickenpox spreads mainly through contaminated water
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Varicella-zoster virus establishes latency and reactivates decades later as zoster, reseeding chickenpox in a new generation and bridging the gap between epidemics without needing a large susceptible pool. Measles, an acute infection with lifelong immunity and no reservoir, fades out below its critical community size.
Measles is in fact the more transmissible of the two, neither has an animal reservoir, and chickenpox does not spread by the water-borne route.
- MCQ
During a period of very low disease prevalence, a positive result from a screening test will:
- A. Always be a true positive
- B. Have a higher positive predictive value
- C. More often be a false positive
- D. Have perfect specificity
- E. Be unaffected by prevalence
Show answer
Correct answer: C
At low prevalence the positive predictive value falls, so a larger share of positive results are false. Predictive value depends on prevalence, not only on a test’s sensitivity and specificity, which is why surveillance signals are confirmed before action.
- MCQ
Enveloped respiratory viruses depend on relatively close or repeated contact mainly because they:
- A. Are labile and survive poorly outside the host
- B. Require an arthropod vector
- C. Are shed only in the faeces
- D. Infect exclusively the lower airway
- E. Need a contaminated water source to spread between hosts
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Enveloped respiratory viruses are labile and survive poorly outside the body, so the respiratory route depends on relatively close or repeated contact.
They do not persist on surfaces or in water the way hardy, non-enveloped enteric viruses do.
- MCQ
For a virus with an R₀ of 5, the herd-immunity threshold is approximately:
- A. 80%
- B. 20%
- C. 50%
- D. 95%
- E. 100%
Show answer
Correct answer: A
The herd-immunity threshold is 1 minus 1/R₀, so at an R₀ of 5 about 80% of the population must be immune for each case to produce fewer than one further case.
The more transmissible the virus, the higher the threshold, which is why measles, with an R₀ around 12 to 18, needs roughly 92 to 95%.
- MCQ
For most viruses, the site from which infectious virus is shed:
- A. Mirrors the site of entry
- B. Is usually the bloodstream
- C. Bears no relation to the site of entry
- D. Is confined to the skin surface
- E. Is limited to the urinary tract
Show answer
Correct answer: A
For most viruses the site of shedding mirrors the site of entry, so a virus entering by the respiratory tract is generally shed from it, and a gut virus is shed in faeces.
Generalised infections are the exception, shedding from several sites at once, as cytomegalovirus does into saliva, urine, semen and milk.
- MCQ
Iatrogenic transmission is best distinguished from nosocomial transmission in that:
- A. It happens only outside recognised healthcare settings
- B. It is spread by a medical procedure or practitioner
- C. It is limited to respiratory viruses
- D. It spares immunocompromised patients
- E. It requires an animal reservoir
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Both are healthcare-associated, but iatrogenic transmission is spread specifically by a medical procedure or practitioner, the 1976 Ebola outbreak in Zaire, amplified by reused unsterilised needles, being the extreme example.
Nosocomial transmission is the broader category of acquiring a virus in a hospital or clinic.
- MCQ
In most countries today, blood-borne viruses such as hepatitis C are transmitted mainly by:
- A. Blood transfusion from unscreened donors
- B. Shared injecting equipment
- C. Respiratory droplets
- D. The faecal-oral route
- E. Casual household contact
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Comprehensive donor screening has made transfusion transmission rare, so the blood-borne viruses now spread mainly through shared injecting equipment.
They are not transmitted by the respiratory, faecal-oral or casual-contact routes, and unbroken skin is an effective barrier.
- MCQ
Overdispersion in transmission, the superspreading pattern, means that:
- A. Every case infects a similar number of others
- B. Transmission cannot be modelled
- C. A few cases cause most secondary infections
- D. The virus lacks any reservoir
- E. Herd immunity is impossible to reach
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Overdispersion means transmission is uneven, with a small number of cases or events causing most secondary infections, the superspreading pattern seen with SARS and SARS-CoV-2.
It makes an epidemic’s early course erratic and means control focused on high-transmission settings can be disproportionately effective.
- MCQ
Quarantine and isolation contained the 2003 SARS epidemic largely because the virus had:
- A. A very high fraction of transmission occurring before any symptoms appear
- B. No capacity for human-to-human spread
- C. An effective vaccine deployed within weeks
- D. Little pre-symptomatic transmission and a generation time of about a week
- E. An animal reservoir that was culled
Show answer
Correct answer: D
SARS in 2003 had little pre-symptomatic transmission and a generation time of about a week, so isolating symptomatic cases and quarantining their contacts interrupted spread.
A virus that transmitted mostly before symptoms appeared would defeat the same symptom-based measures.
- MCQ
The basic reproduction number, R₀, can be understood as the product of:
- A. Transmissibility per contact, the contact rate, and the infectious duration
- B. The incubation period and the overall case-fatality rate
- C. The prevalence and the incidence of infection
- D. Vaccine coverage and the herd-immunity threshold
- E. The latent period and the observed serial interval measured between successive cases
Show answer
Correct answer: A
R₀ is the product of three components: how efficiently the virus transmits at each contact, how many contacts an infected person makes, and how long that person stays infectious.
The other options combine quantities that do not compose the reproduction number.
- MCQ
The basic reproduction number, R₀, is:
- A. The immune proportion of a population
- B. Mean secondary infections from one case in a susceptible population
- C. The daily contact rate of an infected person
- D. The clinical fraction of all infections
- E. The average time interval between successive cases in a transmission chain
Show answer
Correct answer: B
R₀ is the average number of secondary infections produced by one infected individual in a wholly susceptible population, and its threshold value of 1 separates fade-out from epidemic spread.
The other options describe the immune fraction, the contact rate, the clinical ratio, and the generation time.
- MCQ
The extrinsic incubation period of an arbovirus is:
- A. The interval from human infection to the onset of symptoms
- B. The time the virus multiplies in the vector before transmission
- C. The total lifespan of the adult arthropod vector
- D. The period a human host remains infectious to others
- E. The delay before specific antibodies become detectable in the blood
Show answer
Correct answer: B
After a vector takes an infected blood meal, the extrinsic incubation period is the time the virus multiplies and reaches the salivary glands before the vector can transmit it, and it shortens at higher ambient temperature.
The intrinsic incubation period, by contrast, is the interval that runs in the human host after the bite.
- MCQ
The infectivity of a virus, the probability of infecting a susceptible host on exposure, is quantified by:
- A. The case-fatality rate
- B. The basic reproduction number
- C. The incubation period
- D. The total duration of viral shedding after infection
- E. The dose that infects half of those exposed
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Infectivity is quantified by the dose that infects half of those exposed, the ID50.
Virulence, by contrast, is the probability of severe disease and is read from the case-fatality rate; the reproduction number and shedding duration measure different things again.
- MCQ
The number of cases present in a population at one point in time, divided by the size of that population, defines:
- A. Incidence
- B. Attack rate
- C. Prevalence
- D. Seroconversion rate
- E. Case-fatality rate
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Prevalence is a snapshot: the cases present in a population at one moment divided by the population size. It suits chronic or insidious infection, where onset is hard to date.
Incidence and attack rate count new cases over time; the seroconversion rate tracks new antibody responses; and the case-fatality rate is the proportion of cases who die.
- MCQ
The prevalence of a chronic viral infection rises while its incidence stays constant. The most likely explanation is:
- A. Faster transmission
- B. Longer disease duration
- C. Higher case-fatality
- D. Waning herd immunity
- E. More subclinical infection
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Prevalence is a function of both incidence and duration, so with steady new-case rates a rising prevalence reflects longer duration, whether from improved survival or greater chronicity.
Faster transmission or waning immunity would raise incidence; higher case-fatality would shorten duration and lower prevalence; and subclinical infection does not add to the count of recognised cases.
- MCQ
The traditional size cut-off separating respiratory droplets from aerosols is best regarded as:
- A. A precise, fixed physical boundary
- B. Proof that fine aerosols play no role in transmission
- C. Irrelevant to how viruses spread
- D. An approximation, since spread lies on a continuum
- E. Evidence against airborne transmission
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The classical droplet-versus-aerosol cut-off is best read as an approximation, because respiratory spread sits on a continuum rather than splitting cleanly into two mechanisms, a view reinforced by the reappraisal that followed SARS-CoV-2.
Fine aerosols can travel beyond a metre or two and linger in the air, so the boundary is not sharp.
- MCQ
Transovarial transmission in an arthropod vector refers to:
- A. Mechanical carriage of the virus on contaminated mouthparts
- B. Virus replication within the vector's salivary glands
- C. Loss of the virus from the vector at each larval moult
- D. Passage of the virus to the next generation through the egg
- E. Spread between two adjacent human hosts by a single feeding insect
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Transovarial transmission passes the virus to the vector’s next generation through the egg, which helps some arboviruses survive between transmission seasons.
It is distinct from replication in the vector, from mechanical carriage on the mouthparts, and from biological transmission to a human host.
- MCQ
Viruses transmitted by the faecal-oral route are typically:
- A. Enveloped and rapidly inactivated in the environment
- B. Dependent on an arthropod vector
- C. Non-enveloped and environmentally stable
- D. Unable to survive outside the host
- E. Spread mainly by aerosol
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Faecal-oral viruses are typically non-enveloped and survive in water and on surfaces for days to weeks, which is what lets them spread through contaminated food, water and hands.
Enveloped viruses, by contrast, are labile in the environment and do not persist well enough to use this route.
- MCQ
When a virus's latent period is shorter than its incubation period:
- A. The virus cannot be transmitted
- B. Symptoms reliably appear before infectiousness begins in the host
- C. Quarantine becomes fully effective
- D. The infection is usually subclinical
- E. A person becomes infectious before feeling ill
Show answer
Correct answer: E
When the latent period is shorter than the incubation period, a person becomes infectious before symptoms appear, so transmission is pre-symptomatic, as it is for measles and chickenpox.
This blunts any control measure that relies on detecting symptoms before a person can spread the virus.
- MCQ
Which best defines the secondary attack rate?
- A. New cases in the whole population over a year
- B. New cases among susceptible contacts within one incubation period
- C. Deaths among the contacts of the index case
- D. Total cases traced to a single point source
- E. Antibody-positive fraction among the exposed susceptible contacts
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The secondary attack rate is the proportion of susceptible contacts of an index case who become infected within one incubation period. It is a useful measure of infectiousness in closed groups such as households.
The whole-population figure is ordinary incidence; deaths among contacts is a mortality measure; point-source totals describe an outbreak’s size; and the antibody-positive fraction is seroprevalence.
- MCQ
Which epidemiological study design measures the prevalence of infection?
- A. Cross-sectional
- B. Case-control
- C. Prospective cohort
- D. Randomised trial
- E. Long-term population
Show answer
Correct answer: A
A cross-sectional study takes a snapshot at one time point and measures prevalence, quickly and cheaply, but it captures cause and effect together and cannot show which came first.
Case-control and cohort designs track exposure and disease over time; a trial tests an intervention rather than measuring baseline prevalence.
- MCQ
Which is a characteristic feature of a virgin-soil epidemic?
- A. A very low overall attack rate
- B. Sparing of previously exposed adults
- C. Disease confined to young children
- D. Mild illness across all ages
- E. Disproportionate mortality in adults
Show answer
Correct answer: E
When a virus reaches a population with no prior experience of it, the attack rate approaches 100% and adults suffer disproportionate mortality, largely because so much of the community is ill at once that care and social life collapse, rather than because of any special genetic susceptibility.
The attack rate is high rather than low, and illness is not confined to children.
- MCQ
Which laboratory method best distinguishes a vaccine-derived poliovirus from a wild strain in a clinical sample?
- A. Serum neutralising antibody titre
- B. Viral culture on cell lines
- C. Antigen detection by ELISA
- D. Electron microscopy
- E. Genome sequencing
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Genome sequencing, the tool of molecular epidemiology, distinguishes vaccine from wild poliovirus and can track reversion toward virulence. It also assigns outbreak strains to a geographic origin.
Serology, culture, antigen detection and microscopy can identify or quantify the virus but do not resolve strain origin at the sequence level.
- MCQ
Which measure of disease frequency is best suited to an acute infection of short duration?
- A. Incidence, the rate of new cases over time
- B. Prevalence, the cases present at one time point
- C. Seroprevalence, the antibody-positive fraction
- D. Case-fatality rate, the deaths among cases
- E. Duration, the average length of illness
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Incidence counts new cases over a defined period and is the natural measure for acute infections, where each case is a discrete, short episode.
Prevalence and seroprevalence suit chronic or persistent infection; the case-fatality rate measures severity rather than frequency; and duration is a component of prevalence, not a frequency measure in its own right.
- MCQ
Which of the following is a recognised mechanism of vertical transmission?
- A. Aerosol inhalation from an infected contact
- B. Faecal-oral ingestion
- C. Transplacental spread in pregnancy
- D. A mosquito bite
- E. Sexual contact between adults
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Vertical transmission occurs by one of three mechanisms: integration into the germline, transplacental spread in pregnancy, and perinatal or postnatal spread at delivery and through breast milk.
The other routes listed are all horizontal, passing the virus between individuals in a population.
- MCQ
Which of the following is an example of vertical transmission?
- A. Influenza passed by coughing between colleagues
- B. Hepatitis A acquired from contaminated water
- C. HIV passed from a mother to her infant at birth
- D. Norovirus picked up from a contaminated surface
- E. Rabies acquired from the bite of an infected animal
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Vertical transmission passes a virus from parent to offspring, in utero, around birth, or through breast milk, so mother-to-infant HIV at delivery is the vertical example.
The others are all horizontal transmission, between individuals in a population, by the respiratory, faecal-oral, contact and vector routes.
- MCQ
Which of the following represents indirect transmission?
- A. Skin-to-skin contact between two people
- B. A short-range respiratory droplet
- C. Sexual contact between partners
- D. A door handle contaminated with virus
- E. The bite of an infected animal
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Indirect transmission bridges a gap through an intermediary, so a contaminated fomite such as a door handle is the indirect route.
The others are forms of direct transmission, which need immediate contact between an infected and a susceptible host.
- MCQ
Which single feature is essential for a virus to be classified as an arbovirus?
- A. Replication within the arthropod vector
- B. A double-stranded DNA genome
- C. Spread by the faecal-oral route
- D. A human reservoir host
- E. Carriage on the vector's mouthparts
Show answer
Correct answer: A
An arbovirus must replicate inside its arthropod vector, completing the extrinsic incubation period from gut to salivary glands. This biological transmission is the defining criterion of the group.
Carriage on the mouthparts is mechanical transmission, which excludes a virus. A DNA genome, faecal-oral spread and a human reservoir are irrelevant to the definition; most arboviruses have RNA genomes and non-human reservoirs.
- MCQ
Which statement best distinguishes pathogenicity from virulence?
- A. Pathogenicity is the quantitative degree of disease; virulence is its qualitative basis
- B. Pathogenicity is the qualitative basis of disease; virulence is its quantitative degree
- C. The two terms are synonymous and may be used interchangeably in practice
- D. Pathogenicity refers to transmissibility, and virulence refers to infectivity
- E. Virulence is a fixed property of a virus, independent of the host involved
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Pathogenicity is the qualitative capacity of a virus to cause disease at all: a virus either is pathogenic or it is not. Virulence is the quantitative degree of disease it causes, the property used to compare a virulent strain against an attenuated one. Option A reverses the two.
The terms are not synonymous (C), and neither describes transmissibility or infectivity, which are separate properties (D). Virulence is not fixed: it is relative to the host and is meaningfully compared only between related viruses (E).
- MCQ
Which study design gives the strongest observational evidence for a new vaccine's safety and efficacy?
- A. Cross-sectional survey
- B. Case-control study
- C. Prospective cohort
- D. Ecological study
- E. Case series
Show answer
Correct answer: C
A prospective cohort follows an exposed population forward and gives the strongest observational evidence of cause and effect, which is why it is essential for defining vaccine safety and efficacy. Its cost is time and expense.
The other designs cannot establish the same forward link between exposure and outcome.
- MCQ
Which surveillance approach generally yields the most complete and timely data?
- A. Active surveillance, where officials solicit reports
- B. Passive surveillance, relying on spontaneous reports
- C. Anonymous media monitoring
- D. An annual population census
- E. Voluntary clinician interest
Show answer
Correct answer: A
In active surveillance health officials take the initiative to obtain reports, giving high completeness and timeliness, but it is resource-intensive and reserved for priority diseases. Passive surveillance is cheaper and wider but under-reports.
- MCQ
Why is the incidence of clinical disease always lower than the incidence of infection?
- A. Antibody tests miss recent infections
- B. Notification systems undercount every disease
- C. Immunity prevents most reinfections
- D. Many infections are subclinical
- E. Incubation periods delay reporting
Show answer
Correct answer: D
A large share of infections are subclinical, so counting only clinical disease undercounts total infection. The gap can be extreme: under 1% of those infected with poliovirus or an encephalitis-causing arbovirus develop paralysis or encephalitis.
The other options describe reporting delays or immunity effects, not the systematic gap between infection and apparent disease.