Questions
Emerging Diseases & Zoonoses — Questions
Study questions for the Emerging Diseases & Zoonoses topic — exam-style, clinical-scenario and FAQ.
Mock Exam mode
Sit this set one question at a time. Multiple-choice questions mark themselves; written questions reveal a tickable mark scheme so you can score your own answer. You get a combined score at the end.
272 questions: 237 MCQ, 35 written.
High priorityClinical scenarioSeveral neonates in a neonatal intensive care unit develop respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection over a two-week period. Outline how you would investigate and control this suspected nosocomial outbreak. [8]
Model answer
A complete answer confirms the outbreak briefly, then concentrates on practical, RSV-appropriate infection prevention and control, because that is what stops transmission.
a. Confirm the outbreak and define cases. Confirm RSV by polymerase chain reaction, confirm that the number exceeds the expected background, and set a working case definition (a neonate on the unit with a compatible illness and laboratory-confirmed RSV in the period). Use rapid point-of-care testing to identify cases quickly, since prompt detection drives cohorting.
b. Establish the extent. Actively screen all neonates and staff for compatible illness, compile a line listing, and plot cases by onset and cot location to see how far transmission has reached. Keep this brief: it orients control but must not delay it.
c. Institute infection prevention and control (the priority). RSV spreads by respiratory droplets and by contact with secretions on hands, surfaces and shared equipment, so control targets those routes:
- Hand hygiene is the single most effective measure: alcohol-based hand rub before and after every contact, reinforced for staff, parents and visitors.
- Contact and droplet precautions for all cases and contacts: gloves and gowns for hands-on care, surgical mask and eye protection for close or aerosol-generating contact.
- Cohort infected neonates in one area and cohort the nursing staff, so dedicated staff care for infected or for uninfected babies but do not cross between them.
- Exclude symptomatic staff from work and restrict visitors with respiratory symptoms; limit non-essential entry to the unit.
- Environmental cleaning and equipment decontamination: disinfect surfaces and shared items, and dedicate equipment (stethoscopes, monitors, saturation probes) to each cohort.
- Relieve overcrowding and understaffing and ensure adequate spacing between cots, both established risk factors for nosocomial RSV.
- Close the unit to new admissions if transmission continues despite the above.
- Consider RSV monoclonal antibody prophylaxis (palivizumab or nirsevimab) for high-risk exposed neonates per local policy, recognising its role in outbreak control is adjunctive and the evidence limited.
d. Surveillance, communication and closure. Notify the infection prevention and control team and unit management, maintain active surveillance for new cases, educate staff, and declare the outbreak over once no new cases occur for two incubation periods (RSV incubation is about two to eight days).
High prioritySAQDefine an emerging viral infection and give two mechanisms by which viruses emerge. [4]
Model answer
A complete answer defines the term and names two distinct mechanisms.
Definition. An emerging viral infection is one newly recognised in a host or population, or a known infection expanding into a new geographical area or host species, often with a change in pathogenicity.
Mechanisms (any two):
- Zoonotic spillover from an animal reservoir, the dominant route, which introduces genuinely new genetic material into the human population.
- Genetic change in an existing virus: reassortment (as in influenza A), recombination, or mutation and selection that extends host range or virulence.
- Ecological or behavioural change that brings an endemic virus into new contact with people, or a breakdown of control (falling vaccine coverage) that allows re-emergence.
High prioritySAQDefine antigenic drift and antigenic shift, and give the mechanism and consequence of each. [4]
Model answer
Antigenic drift is the gradual accumulation of point mutations in the surface proteins, selected because they evade existing antibody. The change is small and incremental, drives seasonal epidemics, and is why the influenza vaccine is reformulated each year.
Antigenic shift is the abrupt acquisition of a new surface protein by reassortment when two strains co-infect one host. The change is large, produces a subtype the population has little immunity to, and can cause a pandemic.
High prioritySAQDescribe Notifiable Medical Condition (NMC) reporting for viral infections. [5]
Model answer
Notifiable Medical Condition (NMC) reporting is the statutory surveillance system that requires designated conditions to be reported to the public-health authority.
- Legal basis. Reporting is mandatory under national health legislation (in South Africa, the National Health Act), placing a duty on both clinicians and laboratories.
- Categories by urgency. Conditions are graded by how fast they must be reported: the most serious, such as the viral haemorrhagic fevers, measles and acute flaccid paralysis, require immediate notification within 24 hours, while others allow a few days.
- Who reports and how. The attending clinician and the diagnostic laboratory both notify, increasingly through an electronic system that improves completeness and timeliness.
- Purpose. Notification triggers the public-health response (contact tracing, prophylaxis, outbreak control) and feeds national and global surveillance.
High prioritySAQDescribe the challenges of conducting surveillance in resource-limited settings. [5]
Model answer
Surveillance is often hardest where it is most needed, at the sites where emerging viruses first appear.
- Weak laboratory infrastructure. Limited testing capacity and unreliable supply chains delay or prevent confirmation, and reference testing may be far away.
- Incomplete vital registration. Many deaths go unregistered or uncertified, so mortality data are poor; verbal autopsy is sometimes the only tool.
- Under-reporting. Passive systems capture only a fraction of cases where access to care is low and reporting is not resourced.
- Workforce and funding gaps. Too few trained field epidemiologists and competing priorities limit timely analysis and response.
- Mitigations. Sentinel sites, community-based surveillance, mobile-phone reporting, simple tools and field-epidemiology training programmes extend reach at lower cost.
High prioritySAQDescribe the primary cellular tropism of Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever virus and its role in the pathogenesis of widespread organ failure. [4]
Model answer
Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever virus infects mononuclear phagocytes (monocytes and macrophages), dendritic cells, endothelial cells and hepatocytes.
Infection of macrophages and dendritic cells triggers release of pro-inflammatory cytokines which, with direct infection of endothelium, increases vascular permeability and activates coagulation, producing capillary leak and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Infection of hepatocytes causes hepatic necrosis. Together these drive the multi-organ failure of severe disease.
High prioritySAQDescribe the principles of viral surveillance. [5]
Model answer
Surveillance is the ongoing, systematic collection, analysis, interpretation and dissemination of health data, linked to action: “information for action”.
- Systematic and continuous. Data are gathered routinely against a standard case definition, not ad hoc.
- The surveillance cycle. Collection feeds analysis and interpretation, then dissemination, then public-health action, with feedback to the providers of the data; a weak link degrades the whole.
- Fit for purpose. Systems are chosen and judged against attributes that trade off, chiefly sensitivity, timeliness, representativeness and predictive value.
- A clinical trigger plus laboratory confirmation. Effective viral surveillance pairs a syndromic or clinical signal (influenza-like illness, acute flaccid paralysis) with laboratory confirmation and, increasingly, genomic and environmental data.
High prioritySAQDescribe the role of human behaviour and mobility in viral emergence. [5]
Model answer
Human behaviour and movement repeatedly turn a contained reservoir virus into a human problem.
- Travel. Air travel disperses a virus globally within days, as the spread of SARS-CoV-2 from China to dozens of countries showed; the journeys an index case makes can decide whether an outbreak is containable.
- Trade and food systems. The wildlife trade and live-animal markets place reservoir species in contact with people, and intensive farming creates amplifying hosts.
- Encroachment. Deforestation and movement into wild habitat expose people to novel viruses and remove the predators that limit reservoir populations.
- Behaviour. Changes in sexual behaviour, injecting drug use and new medical procedures alter the transmission of endemic viruses such as the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and hepatitis B.
- Displacement and conflict. War and the collapse of public-health programmes allow re-emergence, as poliovirus did in Gaza in 2024.
High prioritySAQDescribe the typical sequence of environmental and zoonotic events that precipitate a human outbreak of Rift Valley fever. [5]
Model answer
- Heavy rainfall: prolonged rains, often in an El Nino year, flood shallow depressions (dambos).
- Mosquito hatching: flooding hatches Aedes eggs already carrying the virus through transovarial transmission.
- Livestock amplification: the virus amplifies in sheep, cattle and goats, producing abortion storms that act as a sentinel.
- Secondary vectors: Culex and other mosquitoes amplify transmission further.
- Human spillover: people are infected by mosquito bites and by contact with infected animal tissues at slaughter, veterinary work or nursing sick animals.
High prioritySAQExplain how phylogenetic analysis and genetic distance are used in the molecular epidemiology of viral infections. [5]
Model answer
Because viruses evolve fast enough to differ over short periods, their sequences carry information about how they are related and how they have spread.
- Reconstructing transmission. Genetically near-identical viruses from different patients suggest a recent common source or transmission chain, while greater genetic distance argues against a direct link; this is used to investigate nosocomial outbreaks and to map an epidemic’s spread.
- Dating and origin. Tip-dated phylogenies, using each sequence’s sampling date, estimate when the most recent common ancestor existed and where a lineage arose.
- Reading the tree. Branch support such as bootstrap values indicates how reliable a grouping is, and trees that disagree across the genome flag recombination.
- Tracking change. The same methods follow the emergence and spread of drug-resistance and immune-escape variants.
High prioritySAQExplain the concept of zoonotic spillover. [4]
Model answer
Zoonotic spillover is the transmission of a virus from its animal reservoir into people. Most emerging viruses are zoonotic, and spillover is the event that introduces new viral genetic material into the human population.
For a spillover to lead anywhere, several barriers must be crossed: the virus must reach a susceptible person, attach to and enter human cells (usually requiring receptor compatibility), then replicate and shed efficiently enough to pass to the next host. Many zoonotic viruses cannot transmit between people, so their human basic reproduction number (R0) is near zero and every case needs fresh exposure to the reservoir. Spillover is more likely between closely related host species, which share similar cell receptors and habitat.
High prioritySAQExplain the importance of case definitions during outbreaks. [4]
Model answer
A case definition is the agreed set of criteria for counting someone as a case, applied consistently throughout an investigation.
- Comparability. A standard definition lets cases be counted the same way across person, place and time, so a rise is real and not an artefact of differing clinical judgement.
- Sensitivity then specificity. Early, suspected definitions are deliberately broad so true cases are not missed; they are tightened to probable and confirmed for the analytic study to reduce misclassification.
- Avoiding bias. When testing an unknown source, the definition must not include the exposure under investigation, or the association becomes circular.
- Triage. Layered definitions also guide who is isolated, treated and tested when capacity is limited.
High prioritySAQExplain the role of laboratory data in outbreak detection and investigation. [4]
Model answer
The laboratory turns clinical suspicion into confirmed fact and links cases that clinical features alone cannot.
- Confirming the agent. Identifying, or excluding, the causative virus verifies that an outbreak is real and establishes what it is.
- Linking cases. Molecular typing and genomic sequencing show whether separate cases share a strain, defining the outbreak’s extent and its transmission chains.
- Early signal. Laboratory-based reporting and reference-laboratory networks often detect an unusual cluster before clinical notification does.
- Guiding response. Strain characterisation informs antiviral susceptibility, vaccine matching and the choice of control measures.
High prioritySAQExplain why RNA viruses are disproportionately represented among emerging pathogens. [4]
Model answer
Roughly one third of emerging and re-emerging infections are caused by ribonucleic acid (RNA) viruses, out of proportion to their share of known viruses. The reason is their capacity for rapid evolution.
- High mutation rates. The RNA-dependent RNA polymerase lacks proofreading, generating about one mutation per genome per replication and a diverse variant population from which host-adapted mutants are selected.
- Large populations and short generation times mean advantageous variants arise and are selected quickly.
- Recombination and, in segmented genomes, reassortment produce sudden, large genetic change, including new host-range or virulence determinants.
Together these let an RNA virus adapt to a new host over days to weeks, against the years to millennia over which the host evolves its defences.
High prioritySAQIdentify the primary tick vector of Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever and list three defining morphological characteristics of this genus. [4]
Model answer
The primary vector is the Hyalomma tick (notably Hyalomma marginatum and H. rufipes).
- Long mouthparts: a long hypostome and palps, longer than in most other hard ticks.
- Banded legs: pale and dark striping along the legs.
- Eyes on the scutum: distinct eyes at the margins of the shield, on a relatively large red-brown body.
High prioritySAQOutline three key epidemiological drivers of Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever transmission in the South African context. [3]
Model answer
- Hyalomma tick exposure: the Hyalomma tick is both reservoir and vector, and farming and outdoor work in the drier interior bring people into contact with infected ticks.
- Livestock contact at slaughter: viraemic cattle, sheep and goats transmit through blood and tissues during slaughter, dehorning and castration, so abattoir and farm workers are at risk.
- Nosocomial and contact spread: a viraemic patient’s blood and body fluids transmit to carers and health workers, extending outbreaks beyond the animal exposure.
High prioritySAQWhat are the requirements for satisfactory acute flaccid paralysis (AFP) surveillance? [5]
Model answer
Acute flaccid paralysis (AFP) surveillance is the backbone of polio eradication: every case of sudden floppy weakness is investigated to prove or exclude poliovirus.
- Sensitivity. Detect at least the expected background of non-polio AFP, a target of around 1 to 2 cases per 100,000 children under 15 years, which shows the system finds cases even where polio is absent.
- Completeness and timeliness. Report and investigate every case promptly, with immediate case investigation.
- Adequate stool specimens. Collect two stool samples 24 to 48 hours apart, within 14 days of onset, transported in a cold chain to an accredited laboratory.
- Laboratory confirmation. Test within the WHO-accredited poliovirus laboratory network, with genomic characterisation to distinguish wild, vaccine (Sabin) and vaccine-derived strains.
High priorityExam-styleCite and discuss the measles case definition in use in South Africa. In what context is it used? What is the role of the laboratory in managing (1) suspected and (2) confirmed cases of measles in South Africa? [10]
Model answer
SA case definition
The NICD aligns with the WHO clinical case definition, with four tiers under the Notifiable Medical Condition (NMC) framework:
- Suspected case — fever + generalised maculopapular (non-vesicular) rash + at least one of cough, coryza, or conjunctivitis. Or any case a clinician considers compatible with measles.
- Laboratory-confirmed — a suspected case with positive measles IgM, measles RNA by RT-PCR, or a 4-fold rise in measles IgG between paired sera; and no measles-containing vaccine within ~6 weeks (which can cause false-positive IgM).
- Epidemiologically linked — a suspected case with documented exposure to a lab-confirmed case (acceptable in an established outbreak).
- Discarded — investigated and lab-negative.
Context of use
Measles is a Category 1 NMC — suspected cases must be reported to NICD immediately (within 24 hours). The definition drives:
- the public-health response — contact tracing, PEP for susceptible contacts, exclusion of cases and unvaccinated contacts;
- elimination surveillance — SA, as part of the WHO African Region, is measured against indicators including the discarded non-measles-case rate and the proportion of suspected cases with adequate specimens;
- early outbreak detection — a single lab-confirmed case in a previously elimination-status area triggers an outbreak response.
Role of the laboratory
In a suspected case — confirm or exclude with measles IgM serology (routine) and RT-PCR on respiratory/urine/oral-fluid specimens (more sensitive in early disease and in the immunocompromised). Test relevant differentials, particularly rubella IgM (also reportable, same elimination programme), and parvovirus B19, dengue or chikungunya as clinical features dictate. Notify NICD on any positive result.
In a confirmed case — genotype at the NICD reference laboratory (450-nt N-gene C-terminal region, sometimes the H gene) to assign one of the 8 clades / 24 genotypes. Genotyping supports source attribution (imported vs endemic), transmission-chain mapping, vaccine-strain identification (when a vaccinee presents IgM-positive), and submission to the WHO MeaNS database — required for elimination certification (continuous interruption of endemic genotype for ≥12 months).
The laboratory is therefore both a clinical service (confirming the case in front of the registrar) and a public-health instrument (elimination surveillance and outbreak attribution).
High priorityExam-styleComment on the relationship between Zika virus infection and microcephaly. [10]
Model answer
A complete answer describes the clinical association, the biological mechanism and the determinants of risk.
The association
The 2015 to 2016 American epidemic was accompanied by a marked rise in infants born with microcephaly, first recognised in north-east Brazil, which drew the link between maternal Zika infection and congenital brain injury and prompted a WHO public health emergency in 2016.
Congenital Zika syndrome
Microcephaly is the hallmark of a broader congenital Zika syndrome that also includes intracranial calcification, ventriculomegaly, ocular lesions such as macular scarring, congenital contractures and sensorineural hearing loss, with later neurodevelopmental impairment; infection can also cause miscarriage and stillbirth.
Mechanism
Zika virus has a tropism for fetal neural progenitor cells, in which it impairs proliferation and causes cell death, interrupting cortical development; the placenta and fetal tissues sustain the infection that seeds the fetal brain.
Determinants of risk
The risk is greatest with infection in the first trimester, though injury can follow later infection. Because about 80% of maternal infections are asymptomatic, exposure is often unrecognised, which is why maternal serology and fetal ultrasound surveillance are central to management.
High priorityExam-styleDescribe the clinical features and natural history of Sindbis virus infection. [10]
Model answer
A complete answer covers the incubation and onset, the characteristic rash and arthritis, the usual course and recovery, the chronic joint sequela, and brief epidemiological framing.
Incubation and onset. After an incubation of about two to eight days, the illness begins abruptly, with fever, rash and joint pain arising together over a short period during a brief viraemia.
Rash. A maculopapular, often intensely itchy rash spreads over the trunk and limbs and may involve the palms and soles; individual lesions can develop a central vesicle, and the rash is occasionally haemorrhagic.
Arthritis. Arthralgia and arthritis favour the larger joints, the ankles, knees, wrists and elbows, and may be severe enough to limit movement, accompanied by myalgia and malaise.
Course and recovery. The illness is self-limited, settling in most people within about two weeks, and the great majority recover completely; severe or fatal disease is rare, and infection confers lasting immunity.
Chronic sequela. In about a third of patients, arthralgia and joint stiffness persist for months and sometimes years after the acute illness, the principal long-term morbidity.
Epidemiological framing. The disease is a seasonal late-summer illness of northern Europe (where it is called Pogosta fever, Ockelbo disease and Karelian fever) and of southern Africa, arising as a spillover from a wild-bird and mosquito cycle.
High priorityExam-styleDiscuss the evidence supporting Zika virus infection as a cause of congenital microcephaly. [10]
Model answer
A complete answer marshals the epidemiological, virological and biological lines of evidence that together establish causation rather than mere association.
Epidemiological evidence
The temporal and geographic coincidence of the microcephaly surge with the wave of Zika transmission, the sharp rise above expected baseline rates, and the reproduction of the association across affected regions and in later outbreaks support a causal link. The greatest risk with first-trimester infection provides a biological gradient consistent with a teratogen.
Direct virological evidence
Zika viral RNA and antigen have been detected in the amniotic fluid, fetal brain tissue and placenta of affected pregnancies, and virus has been recovered from the brains of infants with microcephaly, placing the virus at the site of injury.
Biological plausibility
Zika virus infects and kills neural progenitor cells in cell and animal models, and infection of pregnant animals reproduces fetal brain injury, providing an experimental mechanism.
Judgement
Applying causal criteria of strength, consistency, temporality, biological gradient, plausibility and experimental support, the evidence is judged sufficient to conclude that Zika virus infection causes congenital microcephaly and the wider congenital Zika syndrome.
High priorityExam-styleDiscuss the factors influencing the emergence and re-emergence of viral pathogens, with examples. [6]
Model answer
Emergence is driven by viral, host, and ecological factors acting together.
Viral factors. Error-prone replication generates a quasispecies from which variants with new properties are selected; reassortment (as in influenza A) and recombination can produce sudden, large genetic change. A virus long adapted to its natural host is often of low virulence there, but the same virus on jumping to a new host species, with which it has no evolutionary history, may cause severe disease. Acquisition of a new receptor usage or a virulence determinant, such as a polybasic haemagglutinin cleavage site, can extend host range or pathogenicity.
Host and ecological factors. Most emerging viruses are zoonotic, crossing from an animal reservoir at points of contact widened by deforestation, agricultural intensification, the wildlife trade, and urbanisation. Expanding vector ranges, human population growth, displacement and travel, and growing numbers of immunocompromised hosts all increase spillover and onward spread. Breakdown of control measures, including falling vaccine coverage, allows re-emergence of agents once suppressed.
Examples. SARS-CoV-2 (a coronavirus spillover causing a pandemic), pandemic and highly pathogenic avian influenza (reassortment and host-range change), Zika and Ebola viruses (expansion from limited foci into large outbreaks), and mpox (spread beyond its previous range). Re-emergence is seen where measles or poliovirus return as vaccination coverage falls. The unifying theme is a virus meeting a new or newly susceptible host population.
High priorityExam-styleDiscuss the factors that drive viral genetic diversity and evolution. [10]
Model answer
A complete answer separates the sources of new variation from the forces that shape it.
Sources of genetic variation
- Mutation. Error-prone polymerases, lacking proofreading in RNA viruses, generate about one mutation per genome per replication, the ultimate source of all variation.
- Recombination. Co-infection lets RNA-virus polymerases switch templates (copy-choice), combining changes from two genomes in a single step; it is frequent in retroviruses and coronaviruses.
- Reassortment. Segmented viruses such as influenza A exchange whole segments, producing abrupt change (the basis of antigenic shift).
Forces that shape variation
- Natural selection. Purifying selection removes the many deleterious mutations; positive selection fixes the few advantageous ones (immune escape, drug resistance, host adaptation), measurable as dN/dS.
- Genetic drift and bottlenecks. Within a host, vast populations make selection efficient; at transmission a severe bottleneck, sometimes a single particle, lets chance dominate.
- Constraints. The mutation rate is capped by an error threshold that limits genome size, and compact genomes with overlapping functions tolerate little change.
Consequences
The product is a fast-moving, diverse population (sometimes modelled as a quasispecies) that pre-contains immune-escape and resistance variants, evolves on a measurable molecular clock, and can adapt to new hosts. Evolution is therefore the engine of antigenic variation, drug resistance and emergence.
High priorityExam-styleMigration and displacement of populations pose distinctive viral public-health challenges. Discuss. [6]
Model answer
A complete answer links why displaced populations are at higher viral risk to the public-health response that risk demands.
Why displaced populations are at higher risk
- Overcrowding and poor sanitation in camps and informal settlements favour faecal-oral and respiratory spread (measles, hepatitis A and E, poliovirus).
- Collapsed services and vaccination gaps leave susceptible cohorts, allowing re-emergence of vaccine-preventable viruses, as with measles outbreaks and the return of poliovirus in conflict zones such as Gaza in 2024.
- Movement across boundaries carries viruses into new areas and exposes migrants to agents to which they have no immunity.
- Interrupted treatment for chronic viral infection (HIV, hepatitis B) worsens both individual outcomes and onward transmission.
The public-health response
- Catch-up and mass vaccination (measles, polio) on arrival.
- Surveillance with adapted case definitions, using syndromic surveillance where laboratory capacity is limited.
- Water, sanitation and shelter to interrupt transmission.
- Continuity of care for chronic infections, and integration of migrant health into national systems rather than parallel provision.
The unifying theme is that displacement removes the social and programmatic barriers that normally hold viruses in check, so the response must rebuild those barriers quickly.
- MCQ
"Expanded dengue syndrome" refers to...
- A. Chronic lifelong dengue infection
- B. Organ-specific involvement such as hepatitis, myocarditis or encephalopathy
- C. A vaccine side-effect
- D. Dengue occurring only in pregnancy
- E. Co-infection with Zika virus
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Expanded dengue syndrome describes organ-specific disease, such as hepatitis, myocarditis or encephalopathy, beyond the classical plasma-leakage picture.
Dengue is not chronic, the term is not a vaccine effect, and it is neither limited to pregnancy nor a description of Zika co-infection.
- MCQ
A characteristic severe manifestation of Far-Eastern tick-borne encephalitis is:
- A. Retinitis
- B. Ascending sensory neuropathy
- C. A haemorrhagic fever with hepatic necrosis
- D. Flaccid paralysis of the shoulder girdle and arms
- E. Isolated facial nerve palsy
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The Far-Eastern subtype has a predilection for the anterior horn cells of the cervical cord, producing a poliomyelitis-like flaccid paralysis of the shoulder girdle and arms.
Retinitis, a purely sensory neuropathy, a hepatic haemorrhagic fever and isolated facial palsy are not the characteristic pattern.
- MCQ
A febrile traveller returns from the Amazon with jaundice, mucosal bleeding and heavy proteinuria. Besides yellow fever, which diagnosis most requires exclusion?
- A. Influenza
- B. Norovirus gastroenteritis
- C. Streptococcal pharyngitis
- D. Leptospirosis
- E. Varicella
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Leptospirosis can reproduce the fever, jaundice, bleeding and renal impairment of severe yellow fever and is treatable, so it must be excluded; severe malaria, viral hepatitis and other viral haemorrhagic fevers also enter the differential.
The remaining options do not cause this jaundice-plus-haemorrhage-plus-renal picture.
- MCQ
A hantavirus IgM screen is positive but the species is unclear. The appropriate next step is...
- A. Rely on the screen alone
- B. Perform a blood culture
- C. A species-specific or neutralisation assay
- D. A bone-marrow biopsy
- E. Repeat the identical screen
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Because hantavirus species cross-react serologically, a positive screen is confirmed with a species-specific or neutralisation assay.
The screen alone cannot identify the species, and culture, marrow biopsy and simply repeating the screen do not resolve it.
- MCQ
A mosquito takes up each of these viruses in a blood meal. Which is not an arbovirus, because it cannot replicate in the mosquito?
- A. Yellow fever virus
- B. Dengue virus
- C. West Nile virus
- D. Rift Valley fever virus
- E. Hepatitis B virus
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Hepatitis B virus is digested in the mosquito gut and never replicates in or migrates through the insect, so it is not an arbovirus even though it circulates in blood.
Yellow fever, dengue, West Nile and Rift Valley fever viruses all replicate in their vectors and are true arboviruses.
- MCQ
A patient presents on day 10 of a dengue-like febrile illness. Which test is most likely to be diagnostic?
- A. NS1 antigen test
- B. Reverse-transcriptase PCR
- C. Viral culture
- D. Repeat NS1 antigen
- E. IgM and IgG serology
Show answer
Correct answer: E
By day 10 the viraemia has usually cleared and antibody has risen, so IgM and IgG serology is the diagnostic approach.
NS1 antigen, RT-PCR and culture detect the virus directly and are reliable only in the first few days, while the patient is viraemic.
- MCQ
A person has recovered from a DENV-1 infection. Their resulting immunity is best described as...
- A. Lasting protection against DENV-1 but only brief cross-protection against the others
- B. Lifelong protection against all four serotypes
- C. No protection against any serotype
- D. Protection only against DENV-2
- E. Sterilising immunity to the whole genus
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Infection gives durable protection against the infecting serotype but only short-lived cross-protection against the other three, which is why a later heterologous infection is possible and dangerous.
Immunity is neither lifelong across all serotypes nor absent, and it is not limited to a single other serotype or sterilising for the genus.
- MCQ
A positive Zika IgM result in a returning traveller must be confirmed by plaque-reduction neutralisation mainly because:
- A. IgM is undetectable in true infection
- B. Plaque-reduction neutralisation is cheaper
- C. IgM cross-reacts strongly with dengue and other flaviviruses
- D. IgM appears only after one year
- E. Neutralisation detects viral RNA
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Zika IgM cross-reacts strongly with dengue and other flaviviruses, so a reactive result needs confirmation by plaque-reduction neutralisation, and interpretation is harder in people with prior flavivirus exposure or vaccination.
Neutralisation measures antibody rather than RNA, is more not less laborious, and the timing statements are incorrect.
- MCQ
A practical advantage of the Qdenga (TAK-003) vaccine over Dengvaxia is that it...
- A. Needs no cold chain
- B. Is a single dose for infants
- C. Protects against all flaviviruses
- D. Can be given without pre-vaccination serostatus screening
- E. Removes the need for vector control
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Qdenga can be given without screening a recipient’s dengue serostatus first, and is WHO-recommended for children in high-transmission settings.
It still needs a cold chain and two doses, protects only against dengue, and does not replace vector control.
- MCQ
A Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) is declared by:
- A. The United Nations Security Council
- B. The WHO Director-General under the International Health Regulations
- C. Each affected country independently
- D. The World Health Assembly by vote
- E. The Global Outbreak Alert and Response Network
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The WHO Director-General declares a PHEIC, on the advice of an Emergency Committee, under the International Health Regulations (2005). It marks an extraordinary event that risks international spread and may need a coordinated response, and triggers temporary recommendations to member states.
- MCQ
A rare severe reaction to the 17D vaccine that mimics wild-type disease with multi-organ failure, occurs only in first-time recipients and rises steeply with age is:
- A. Guillain-Barré syndrome
- B. Vaccine-associated enhanced respiratory disease
- C. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
- D. Vaccine-associated viscerotropic disease
- E. Anaphylaxis to gelatin
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Vaccine-associated viscerotropic disease resembles severe wild-type yellow fever, has a case-fatality near 50%, occurs in first-time recipients and increases markedly with age, which is why elderly travellers are vaccinated only when exposure risk is genuine.
Vaccine-associated neurotropic disease is the separate encephalitic reaction; the other options are not the recognised viscerotropic syndrome.
- MCQ
A ratio of nonsynonymous to synonymous substitutions (dN/dS) greater than one indicates:
- A. Neutral evolution
- B. Purifying selection
- C. Genetic drift
- D. Positive (diversifying) selection
- E. Recombination
Show answer
Correct answer: D
dN/dS above one signals positive selection, where amino-acid-changing mutations are favoured, as in the antibody-targeted surface proteins. A ratio below one indicates purifying selection, the usual state of compact RNA-virus genomes.
- MCQ
A recognised sequela of Sindbis virus infection is:
- A. Persistent arthralgia lasting months to years
- B. Chronic hepatitis progressing to liver cirrhosis over years
- C. Slowly progressive dementia
- D. Permanent flaccid paralysis
- E. Nephrotic syndrome
Show answer
Correct answer: A
About a third of patients have arthralgia and joint stiffness that persist for months and sometimes years after the acute illness, the main long-term morbidity.
The other outcomes are not features of Sindbis infection.
- MCQ
A zoonotic virus whose human basic reproduction number (R0) is effectively zero will typically:
- A. Sustain a human epidemic unaided
- B. Spread efficiently person to person
- C. Persist by human transmission alone
- D. Need fresh reservoir exposure for each case
- E. Have lost its animal reservoir
Show answer
Correct answer: D
When the human R0 is near zero the virus cannot sustain human chains, so every case depends on fresh spillover from the reservoir, the pattern seen with Lassa fever in West Africa. Only once R0 approaches and passes one can sustained human transmission occur.
- MCQ
Aedes aegypti is the principal urban vector for all of these EXCEPT which virus?
- A. Dengue virus
- B. Zika virus
- C. West Nile virus
- D. Chikungunya virus
- E. Yellow fever virus
Show answer
Correct answer: C
West Nile virus is transmitted by Culex mosquitoes from a bird reservoir, not by Aedes aegypti.
Dengue, Zika, chikungunya and, in its urban cycle, yellow fever are all spread by Aedes aegypti, one vector serving three virus families.
- MCQ
After a tick bite, the usual incubation period of tick-borne encephalitis is:
- A. About 7 to 14 days
- B. A few hours
- C. 1 to 2 days
- D. 6 to 12 weeks
- E. Over 6 months
Show answer
Correct answer: A
The incubation period is about 7 to 14 days after a tick bite, and tends to be shorter after milk-borne infection.
The other intervals are too short or too long for tick-borne encephalitis.
- MCQ
After receptor binding, how does chikungunya virus enter and release its genome?
- A. Direct fusion at the plasma membrane at neutral pH
- B. Clathrin-mediated endocytosis then low-pH E1 fusion
- C. Pore formation by the 6K viroporin
- D. Endocytosis followed by capsid-mediated membrane fusion
- E. Injection of the genome across the membrane
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The virus is taken up by clathrin-mediated endocytosis, and the acid endosome triggers E1 to form fusion trimers that merge the membranes.
Fusion is low-pH dependent rather than neutral-pH, is driven by E1 rather than the capsid or 6K, and alphaviruses do not inject their genome.
- MCQ
An epidemic curve that rises sharply and falls within a single incubation period suggests:
- A. A point (common) source
- B. A propagated outbreak
- C. A continuous common source
- D. An endemic baseline
- E. A laboratory artefact
Show answer
Correct answer: A
A point-source outbreak follows a single brief common exposure, so all cases appear within one incubation period, giving a sharp rise and fall. The exposure time can be estimated by counting one mean incubation period back from the peak.
- MCQ
An outbreak is best defined as:
- A. The continuous, self-sustaining background level of a disease in a defined area
- B. More cases of a disease than expected for the place and time
- C. Any case of a viral infection acquired in hospital
- D. A disease that is present on more than one continent
- E. The total number of cases recorded over a whole year
Show answer
Correct answer: B
An outbreak, used interchangeably with epidemic, is the occurrence of more cases than expected for a given population, place and time, or a single case of something new or of major significance. The steady background level is endemic disease.
- MCQ
An outbreak of a virus within its animal reservoir population is termed:
- A. Enzootic transmission
- B. An epizootic
- C. A pandemic
- D. Sylvatic maintenance
- E. A propagated outbreak
Show answer
Correct answer: B
An epizootic is an outbreak in an animal population, the animal equivalent of an epidemic, whereas enzootic transmission is the steady background maintenance of a virus in its reservoir. An epizootic frequently precedes human cases, as with West Nile virus in birds.
- MCQ
Antibody-dependent enhancement of severe dengue is best explained by which mechanism?
- A. Sub-neutralising antibody increasing viral uptake through Fc receptors
- B. Complement-mediated lysis of infected cells
- C. Molecular mimicry of neural antigens
- D. Direct viral cytotoxicity of endothelium
- E. Cross-neutralisation of all four serotypes
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Non-neutralising antibody from a prior serotype binds a new serotype and carries it more efficiently into Fc-receptor-bearing macrophages, raising viral load and the inflammatory response.
Complement lysis, molecular mimicry and direct cytotoxicity are not the mechanism, and antibody does not durably cross-neutralise the four serotypes.
- MCQ
Approximately what proportion of emerging infectious diseases are estimated to originate in animals?
- A. ~10%
- B. ~25%
- C. ~40%
- D. ~60%
- E. ~90%
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The World Health Organization estimates that more than 60% of emerging infectious diseases reported globally come from animals, and the share is higher still among genuinely new agents. This zoonotic dominance is why emergence is framed as a problem of the human-animal-environment interface.
The lower options understate the animal contribution; ~90% overstates it.
- MCQ
Approximately what proportion of human RVF infections progress to severe disease?
- A. About 1% to 2%
- B. The majority of cases
- C. Around 25%
- D. Around one half
- E. Essentially none
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Only about 1% to 2% of infections progress to severe disease; the great majority are a self-limiting febrile illness.
Severe disease is uncommon, but the scale of epizootics still yields many such cases.
- MCQ
Approximately what proportion of Zika virus infections are asymptomatic?
- A. Around 1%
- B. Around 20%
- C. Around 50%
- D. Around 80%
- E. Essentially none
Show answer
Correct answer: D
About 80% of Zika infections cause no symptoms, so transmission is largely silent and outbreaks can be extensive before recognition; symptomatic disease is usually mild and lasts up to a week.
The lower figures understate the high asymptomatic fraction.
- MCQ
At transmission between hosts, HIV and influenza infections are often founded by:
- A. A single virus particle
- B. The entire donor population
- C. Only defective genomes
- D. Recombinant genomes only
- E. An integrated provirus
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Transmission imposes a severe bottleneck, and a new HIV or influenza infection is frequently established by just one virus particle. This sharply reduces diversity and lets chance, not only fitness, decide which variants are passed on.
- MCQ
Because RNA viruses accumulate substitutions at a measurable, roughly constant rate, sequence data can be used to:
- A. Eliminate the need for viral culture entirely
- B. Prove that a virus is non-pathogenic
- C. Determine a virus's envelope status
- D. Assign a virus to its Baltimore class
- E. Estimate the date of their common ancestor
Show answer
Correct answer: E
A molecular clock lets the timing of a most recent common ancestor be estimated and outbreaks be dated and traced, because sequences sampled even weeks apart already differ. RNA viruses are therefore called measurably evolving populations.
- MCQ
Besides a tick bite, tick-borne encephalitis virus is notably acquired by which route?
- A. Sexual contact
- B. Unpasteurised dairy products
- C. Rodent excreta
- D. Respiratory droplets
- E. Contaminated water
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Tick-borne encephalitis can be acquired by drinking unpasteurised milk or dairy from an infected goat, sheep or cow, which sheds virus during its viraemia.
Sexual, respiratory, rodent-excreta and waterborne routes are not features of the virus.
- MCQ
Besides mosquito bite, West Nile virus has well-documented transmission by which route?
- A. Respiratory droplets
- B. Faecal-oral spread
- C. Sexual contact
- D. Organ transplantation and blood transfusion
- E. Tick bite
Show answer
Correct answer: D
West Nile virus is transmitted by blood transfusion and organ transplantation, and rarely through breast milk and in pregnancy. Organ transmission is especially dangerous because it can come from donors without detectable viraemia into immunosuppressed recipients, which is why blood services screen donations during transmission seasons.
The other routes are not recognised means of West Nile transmission.
- MCQ
CCHFV is best described as:
- A. A mosquito-borne haemorrhagic virus of the Americas
- B. The most widespread tick-borne virus worldwide
- C. A virus confined to sub-Saharan Africa
- D. An airborne virus of temperate Europe
- E. A rodent-borne virus of Southeast Asia
Show answer
Correct answer: B
CCHFV is the most widely distributed tick-borne virus, endemic across Africa, the Balkans, the Middle East, Central Asia and the Indian subcontinent, following the range of Hyalomma ticks.
It is an Old World, tick-borne virus, not mosquito-borne, rodent-borne or geographically confined.
- MCQ
Compared with dengue and Zika, chikungunya infection is:
- A. Largely asymptomatic
- B. Symptomatic only in children
- C. Symptomatic only on a later reinfection, not the first
- D. Mostly symptomatic, with up to a quarter subclinical
- E. Followed by chronic arthritis in most patients
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Most chikungunya infections are symptomatic, unlike dengue and Zika, though up to a quarter are subclinical or asymptomatic.
It is not silent in most people, is not restricted to children or to reinfection, and only a minority develop chronic arthritis.
- MCQ
Compared with HFRS, hantavirus cardiopulmonary syndrome...
- A. Causes more overt haemorrhage
- B. Rarely causes true haemorrhage despite the capillary leak
- C. Spares the lungs
- D. Has a lower case-fatality
- E. Reliably responds to ribavirin
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Despite profound capillary leak, true haemorrhage is uncommon in cardiopulmonary syndrome, which is dominated instead by pulmonary oedema and shock.
It does not spare the lungs, its case-fatality (~35 to 40%) is higher than most HFRS, and ribavirin has no proven benefit in it.
- MCQ
Congenital Zika syndrome is most likely to follow maternal infection during which period, and its hallmark feature is:
- A. Third trimester; neonatal hepatitis
- B. Peri-conception; limb reduction defects only
- C. Second trimester; cardiac septal defects
- D. First trimester; microcephaly
- E. Any trimester; deafness alone
Show answer
Correct answer: D
First-trimester infection carries the highest risk, and microcephaly is the hallmark, accompanied by intracranial calcification, ventriculomegaly, ocular lesions, contractures and hearing loss; infection can also cause miscarriage and stillbirth.
The other combinations misstate the timing or the pattern of injury.
- MCQ
Coronaviruses can maintain the largest known RNA genomes because, unusually, they possess:
- A. A segmented genome
- B. A DNA intermediate
- C. Two copies of the genome
- D. A proofreading exoribonuclease
- E. Overlapping reading frames
Show answer
Correct answer: D
A proofreading exoribonuclease lowers the coronavirus error rate, lifting the usual ceiling on RNA-virus genome size. It is the exception to the rule that RNA polymerases lack proofreading, and it shapes how this emerging-virus family evolves.
- MCQ
Cross-species transmission of a virus is generally most likely between:
- A. Closely related species with shared receptors
- B. Phylogenetically distant species
- C. Species sharing few receptors
- D. Hosts on separate continents
- E. Hosts with strong prior immunity
Show answer
Correct answer: A
A successful jump is more likely between closely related hosts, which share less-divergent cell receptors and often the same habitat, giving both compatibility and exposure. Receptor compatibility is the key molecular barrier to host range.
- MCQ
Current evidence on ribavirin for CCHF is best summarised as:
- A. Curative at any stage of illness
- B. Widely used but of contested benefit
- C. Contraindicated in all patients
- D. Proven effective in randomised trials
- E. Effective only after day ten of illness
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Ribavirin has been used for decades and may help when started early, but recent meta-analyses question its benefit and several investigators have called for randomised trials.
It is still given in many endemic settings, particularly when CCHF cannot be distinguished from other haemorrhagic fevers, so it is neither proven nor contraindicated.
- MCQ
Current World Health Organization guidance on the 17D yellow fever vaccine is that protective immunity is conferred by:
- A. A single dose with boosters every 10 years
- B. A two-dose primary series
- C. A single dose giving lifelong protection
- D. Annual revaccination
- E. Three doses over six months
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Since 2013 the WHO has held that a single dose of 17D gives lifelong protection, and the International Health Regulations were amended in 2016 so that a valid vaccination certificate no longer expires.
The former recommendation was a ten-year booster; the other schedules do not apply to this live-attenuated vaccine.
- MCQ
Dengue acquired near term in pregnancy is associated with...
- A. No fetal or neonatal risk
- B. Congenital cataracts
- C. Limb hypoplasia
- D. Sterilising fetal immunity
- E. Neonatal dengue and an increased risk of preterm birth
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Infection near delivery can cause neonatal dengue and raises the risk of preterm birth, low birth weight and peripartum haemorrhage.
There is a real perinatal risk, and the congenital defects listed belong to rubella and varicella, not dengue.
- MCQ
Dengue virion maturation depends on cleavage of the premembrane (prM) protein by...
- A. The viral NS3 protease
- B. Neuraminidase
- C. Host caspases
- D. The host RNA polymerase
- E. Host furin in the trans-Golgi network
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Host furin cleaves prM in the trans-Golgi network as the particle exits, priming it for infectivity; incomplete cleavage leaves a mixture of mature and immature virions.
NS3 processes the polyprotein, not prM at maturation, and neuraminidase, caspases and host RNA polymerase have no role here.
- MCQ
Dengue virus is best classified as...
- A. A segmented negative-sense RNA virus
- B. A double-stranded DNA virus
- C. A retrovirus
- D. A positive-sense RNA flavivirus with four serotypes
- E. An alphavirus
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Dengue is a positive-sense RNA flavivirus (genus Orthoflavivirus) with four serotypes, DENV-1 to DENV-4.
It is not segmented or negative-sense, not a DNA virus or retrovirus, and not an alphavirus (the arthritogenic Togaviridae).
- MCQ
Detection of West Nile virus IgM in the cerebrospinal fluid is useful diagnostically because it:
- A. Excludes all other flaviviruses
- B. Appears within hours of the mosquito bite
- C. Indicates central nervous system infection, as IgM does not cross the blood-brain barrier
- D. Confirms lifelong immunity
- E. Is detectable only after one year
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Because IgM does not cross the blood-brain barrier, its presence in cerebrospinal fluid signals infection within the central nervous system. In serum, West Nile IgM can persist for more than a year and cross-reacts with other flaviviruses, so paired sera and neutralisation may be needed.
The other statements misstate the specificity and timing of the assay.
- MCQ
During a period of very low disease prevalence, a positive result from a screening test will:
- A. Always be a true positive
- B. Have a higher positive predictive value
- C. More often be a false positive
- D. Have perfect specificity
- E. Be unaffected by prevalence
Show answer
Correct answer: C
At low prevalence the positive predictive value falls, so a larger share of positive results are false. Predictive value depends on prevalence, not only on a test’s sensitivity and specificity, which is why surveillance signals are confirmed before action.
- MCQ
During acute yellow fever, liver biopsy is avoided because it may precipitate:
- A. Bile leak and peritonitis
- B. Fatal haemorrhage
- C. Portal vein thrombosis
- D. Hepatic abscess
- E. Tumour seeding along the needle track
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The coagulopathy of severe yellow fever makes liver biopsy dangerous, and it has caused fatal haemorrhage. The definitive tissue diagnosis is instead made post-mortem by immunostaining or PCR for viral antigen in the liver.
The other complications are not the reason biopsy is contraindicated in acute yellow fever.
- MCQ
Flavivirus serology is positive but cross-reacts with several agents. Which test best identifies the specific infecting virus?
- A. IgM-capture ELISA
- B. NS1 antigen ELISA
- C. Haemagglutination inhibition
- D. Plaque-reduction neutralisation test
- E. Repeat IgG ELISA
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The plaque-reduction neutralisation test measures type-specific neutralising antibody and is the confirmatory gold standard when flavivirus serology cross-reacts.
Capture and antigen ELISAs and haemagglutination inhibition are prone to the same cross-reactivity that created the problem.
- MCQ
For which virus do humans act as an amplifying host able to sustain an urban epidemic?
- A. West Nile virus
- B. Japanese encephalitis virus
- C. Eastern equine encephalitis virus
- D. Dengue virus
- E. Sindbis virus
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Humans reach a viraemia high enough to infect feeding mosquitoes with dengue, so they are the amplifying host in the urban human-to-mosquito-to-human cycle.
For West Nile, Japanese encephalitis, Eastern equine encephalitis and Sindbis viruses, humans are dead-end hosts that do not sustain transmission.
- MCQ
Genetically, RVFV across its geographic range is best described as:
- A. Highly variable, with many serotypes
- B. Prone to rapid antigenic shift
- C. Split into distinct vaccine-escape serotypes worldwide
- D. Highly conserved, essentially one antigenic type
- E. Continuously drifting like influenza
Show answer
Correct answer: D
RVFV shows only about 4% to 5% nucleotide diversity among strains since the 1970s and behaves as a single antigenic type, so one well-matched vaccine can protect broadly.
It does not undergo antigenic shift or drift into escape serotypes.
- MCQ
Hantavirus injures the host mainly by...
- A. Lysing endothelial cells directly
- B. Immune-mediated capillary leak without directly killing cells
- C. Forming occlusive thrombi
- D. Producing a bacterial-type toxin
- E. Antibody-dependent enhancement
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The virus infects endothelium without killing it, and disease follows from an immune-mediated rise in capillary permeability, so recovery leaves no vascular scarring.
It is not directly cytopathic, does not act through thrombosis or a toxin, and antibody-dependent enhancement is a dengue mechanism.
- MCQ
Hantavirus messenger RNA synthesis occurs in the cytoplasm and is primed by...
- A. A poly-A primer
- B. Reverse transcription
- C. Self-cleaving ribozymes
- D. Nuclear splicing
- E. Cap-snatching from host messenger RNA
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Like other members of the order Bunyavirales, hantaviruses prime their messenger RNA by cap-snatching, stealing capped fragments from host transcripts, entirely in the cytoplasm.
They do not use a poly-A primer, reverse transcription, ribozymes or nuclear splicing.
- MCQ
HIV-1 reverse transcriptase lacks proofreading and introduces on the order of one error per genome each replication cycle. The immediate consequence is:
- A. A genetically uniform virus population
- B. Inability to establish chronic infection
- C. A swarm of variants (a quasispecies)
- D. Loss of the ability to integrate
- E. Reduced mutation under drug pressure
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Error-prone reverse transcription, combined with an enormous replicative output (on the order of ten billion virions a day), generates a quasispecies, a swarm of related variants within each host.
This standing diversity is the raw material for immune escape and for the rapid selection of drug resistance, so the distractors (uniformity, reduced mutation, or loss of core functions) are the opposite of what high error rates produce.
- MCQ
How are humans most often infected with hantaviruses?
- A. Inhalation of aerosolised rodent excreta
- B. Tick bite
- C. Mosquito bite
- D. Contaminated drinking water
- E. Sexual contact
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Hantaviruses are acquired by inhaling aerosols of infected rodent urine, droppings and saliva, typically when disturbing contaminated dust indoors.
They are not arthropod-borne, so tick and mosquito bites are irrelevant, and water and sexual transmission are not significant routes (person-to-person spread is confined to Andes virus).
- MCQ
How are the equine encephalitis viruses usually diagnosed in a patient with encephalitis?
- A. Blood culture on standard bacteriological agar plates
- B. Antigen testing of a urine sample
- C. Serology, with IgM in serum and cerebrospinal fluid
- D. Electroencephalography on its own
- E. Skin biopsy of a rash
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Diagnosis rests on serology, with virus-specific IgM in serum and cerebrospinal fluid and a rising IgG on paired sera, because the viraemia is usually past by the time encephalitis appears; reverse-transcription PCR helps early, especially in Venezuelan infection.
Agar culture, urinary antigen, electroencephalography alone and skin biopsy are not the approach.
- MCQ
How does Sindbis virus enter cells and release its genome?
- A. Fusion at the plasma membrane at neutral pH
- B. Injection of the genome through a tail structure
- C. Receptor-independent fluid-phase pinocytosis
- D. Clathrin endocytosis then low-pH E1 fusion
- E. Capsid-mediated fusion with the nuclear membrane
Show answer
Correct answer: D
After E2-mediated attachment, the virus enters by clathrin-mediated endocytosis, and the acid endosome triggers E1 to fuse the membranes, releasing the nucleocapsid into the cytoplasm.
Entry is not neutral-pH fusion, genome injection, receptor-independent, or nuclear.
- MCQ
How does the CCHFV genome differ from that of most other bunyavirals?
- A. It is a positive-sense genome
- B. It is a single non-segmented molecule of RNA
- C. It uses an ambisense S segment
- D. Its L and M segments are unusually large
- E. It is composed of DNA
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The CCHFV L and M segments are markedly larger than in other bunyavirals, the oversized L protein carrying a cap-snatching endonuclease and an OTU deubiquitinase domain in addition to the polymerase.
The genome is negative-sense, tripartite RNA; an ambisense S segment is a phlebovirus feature, seen in Rift Valley fever virus, not CCHFV.
- MCQ
How does the CCHFV L polymerase prime viral messenger RNA synthesis?
- A. With a self-priming genomic hairpin
- B. Using a covalently linked protein primer
- C. By recruiting a host DNA primase
- D. Through poly-A slippage on the template
- E. By cap-snatching from host transcripts
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The L polymerase cleaves short capped fragments from host messenger RNAs and uses them to prime transcription (cap-snatching), a strategy shared across the bunyavirals and carried out entirely in the cytoplasm.
Protein-primed and self-priming mechanisms belong to other virus groups.
- MCQ
How is CCHFV maintained within its tick population across generations?
- A. Reinfection from viraemic humans each season
- B. Sexual transmission between adult ticks only
- C. Carriage in migratory-bird droppings
- D. Annual reintroduction from mosquitoes
- E. Transovarial and transstadial transmission
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The tick is both vector and reservoir: it passes CCHFV transstadially across its moults and transovarially into its eggs, so the enzootic cycle persists without the vertebrate host being permanently infected.
Humans are dead-end hosts, and mosquitoes play no part in the cycle.
- MCQ
How is Sindbis virus infection usually diagnosed?
- A. Blood culture on standard bacteriological growth media
- B. Serology, with virus-specific IgM in the acute phase
- C. Lumbar puncture with cerebrospinal fluid microscopy
- D. Skin biopsy histology on its own
- E. Stool antigen detection testing
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Diagnosis is usually serological, with virus-specific IgM detectable in the acute illness and a rising IgG on paired sera; reverse-transcription PCR and isolation are possible early, when the patient still has viraemia.
Bacterial culture, cerebrospinal fluid microscopy, biopsy alone and stool antigen are not the approach.
- MCQ
How is the chikungunya genome organised and expressed?
- A. A single polyprotein is cleaved into all viral proteins
- B. Nonstructural proteins are made from a subgenomic RNA
- C. A negative-sense genome copied by a packaged virion polymerase
- D. A segmented negative-sense genome encodes one protein per segment
- E. Nonstructural from the 5' end, structural from a subgenomic RNA
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The 5’ two-thirds of the positive-sense genome is translated directly into the nonstructural polyprotein (nsP1 to nsP4); the structural proteins come from a separate subgenomic messenger RNA.
The genome is non-segmented and positive-sense, so there is no virion polymerase and no one-protein-per-segment arrangement.
- MCQ
Humans and horses are described as dead-end hosts for West Nile virus because they:
- A. Are seldom bitten by the vector mosquito
- B. Clear the virus before any viraemia develops
- C. Do not develop enough viraemia to infect biting mosquitoes
- D. Transmit only through blood transfusion
- E. Are refractory to infection entirely
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Humans and horses can be infected and can fall ill, but their viraemia is too low and brief to infect feeding mosquitoes, so they cannot sustain the transmission cycle. The bird-mosquito cycle maintains the virus.
They are bitten and are fully susceptible; transfusion is a rare additional route, not the reason they are dead-end hosts.
- MCQ
In a compact RNA-virus genome, most random mutations are:
- A. Beneficial
- B. Deleterious or lethal
- C. Strictly neutral
- D. Silent by definition
- E. Reverted automatically
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The large majority of random mutations are deleterious or lethal (around 40% lethal in vesicular stomatitis virus), with only ~4% beneficial. This is why purifying selection is the dominant force on these genomes.
- MCQ
In a patient who dies of CCHF, antibody testing is typically:
- A. Strongly positive for IgM antibody
- B. Positive for IgG but not IgM
- C. The single most reliable diagnostic method available
- D. Negative, as antibody often fails to appear
- E. Falsely positive through cross-reaction
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Specific IgM and IgG appear around days five to seven only in those who survive; fatal cases usually die before they seroconvert.
Molecular detection, not serology, is therefore decisive in severe disease, and a negative antibody result never excludes CCHF in a severely ill patient.
- MCQ
In CCHF, a blood viral load above about 10⁸ genome copies per millilitre is associated with:
- A. A fatal outcome
- B. Subclinical infection
- C. Durable sterilising immunity
- D. Reduced onward transmissibility
- E. Emergent ribavirin resistance
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Viral loads above roughly 10⁸ genome copies per millilitre predict a fatal course, whereas lower loads accompany milder disease.
Viral load, platelet count and clotting times are combined in severity scores; a high load signals worse, not milder, disease.
- MCQ
In dengue, plasma leakage and shock characteristically develop...
- A. On the first day of fever
- B. Around defervescence, on days 4 to 6
- C. Only after about three weeks
- D. During the incubation period
- E. Only in the recovery phase
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The critical phase begins around defervescence, typically days 4 to 6, which is why a settling fever can dangerously masquerade as improvement.
Leakage is not a feature of the first febrile day, the incubation period or the recovery phase, and it does not wait three weeks.
- MCQ
In haemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome, the organ chiefly affected is the...
- A. Lung
- B. Liver
- C. Heart
- D. Kidney
- E. Brain
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The kidney bears the brunt in HFRS, giving the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury that is the usual time of death.
The lung is the target in the New World cardiopulmonary syndrome; the liver, heart and brain are not the primary organs, though overlap between the syndromes occurs.
- MCQ
In hantavirus infection, which is associated with more severe disease?
- A. Early high neutralising-antibody titres
- B. Low circulating cytokine levels
- C. Rapid viral clearance
- D. A vigorous cytotoxic CD8 T-cell response
- E. An absent T-cell response
Show answer
Correct answer: D
A vigorous cytotoxic CD8 T-cell response is closely associated with severe disease, its intensity tracking the degree of capillary leak, which is why the disease is largely immunopathological.
Conversely, a high early neutralising-antibody titre predicts a better outcome; low cytokines, rapid clearance and an absent response are not markers of severity.
- MCQ
In highly endemic areas of Asia, clinical Japanese encephalitis falls mainly on which group, and why?
- A. The elderly, because of waning vaccine immunity
- B. Pregnant women, because of immune tolerance
- C. Travellers, because they lack any exposure
- D. Male farm workers, because of occupational bites
- E. Children, because most adults are already immune
Show answer
Correct answer: E
With a very high ratio of subclinical to clinical infection (on the order of 250 to 1), most people in endemic areas are infected and immune by adulthood, so clinical disease falls mainly on children.
The other groups are not the predominant affected population in highly endemic settings.
- MCQ
In severe secondary dengue, cross-reactive memory T cells contribute to disease by...
- A. Releasing a disproportionate burst of inflammatory cytokines
- B. Clearing the virus faster
- C. Producing sterilising antibody
- D. Preventing viraemia
- E. Blocking Fc receptors
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Memory T cells raised against the first serotype respond poorly to the second and release a disproportionate cytokine burst, a T-cell “original antigenic sin” that helps drive the vascular leak.
They do not clear the virus faster, make sterilising antibody, prevent viraemia or block Fc receptors.
- MCQ
In South Africa, chikungunya is best described as:
- A. Mostly imported, though a competent vector is present
- B. An endemic cause of large seasonal summer epidemics inland
- C. Transmitted by ticks in rural areas
- D. Absent because no suitable mosquito exists
- E. A common local cause of encephalitis
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Most South African cases are imported by travellers, but Aedes aegypti is present in parts of the country, so a viraemic case could seed local transmission.
It is not endemic like the local alphavirus Sindbis, is not tick-borne, is not excluded by a lack of vector, and is an arthritic rather than encephalitic illness.
- MCQ
In South Africa, what is the notifiable-condition status of West Nile virus infection?
- A. Not notifiable
- B. Category 1, requiring immediate emergency notification like the viral haemorrhagic fevers
- C. Internationally notifiable under the International Health Regulations only
- D. A category 3 notifiable medical condition
- E. Notifiable only in horses, not humans
Show answer
Correct answer: D
West Nile virus is a category 3 notifiable medical condition in South Africa, reported through the routine notification system rather than the immediate emergency pathway reserved for the viral haemorrhagic fevers.
It is notifiable in humans and is not confined to International Health Regulations reporting.
- MCQ
In South Africa, which pair of arboviral infections must be notified within 24 hours as Category 1 conditions?
- A. Dengue and Zika
- B. Chikungunya and Sindbis
- C. West Nile and yellow fever
- D. Dengue and chikungunya
- E. Rift Valley fever and Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Rift Valley fever and Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever are Category 1 notifiable medical conditions and must be notified within 24 hours, reflecting their haemorrhagic-fever severity.
All other arboviral infections, whether endemic or imported, are Category 3 and reported through routine channels.
- MCQ
In the classic triphasic course of yellow fever, jaundice, bleeding and renal failure appear during which phase?
- A. The period of infection
- B. The period of intoxication
- C. The period of remission
- D. The incubation period
- E. Late convalescence
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The period of intoxication follows a brief remission and brings jaundice, acute kidney injury and a haemorrhagic diathesis, by which time viraemia has usually cleared; death, when it occurs, is around the seventh to tenth day.
The period of infection is the initial viraemic febrile phase, the period of remission is a short symptom-free interval where many recover, and the incubation period precedes symptoms.
- MCQ
In the first few days of a suspected yellow fever illness, the most appropriate diagnostic test is:
- A. Reverse-transcriptase PCR on blood
- B. IgG avidity testing
- C. Plaque-reduction neutralisation on a single sample
- D. Liver biopsy for histology
- E. Paired convalescent serology alone
Show answer
Correct answer: A
During the early viraemic days, reverse-transcriptase PCR (and NS1 antigen detection) on blood is the test of choice; IgM-capture ELISA becomes useful from about day four.
Plaque-reduction neutralisation resolves cross-reactivity but is confirmatory rather than an early frontline test, liver biopsy is contraindicated in acute illness, and convalescent serology is too slow to guide acute management.
- MCQ
In the first week of chikungunya illness, the diagnostic test of choice is:
- A. IgG serology
- B. Viral culture of aspirated synovial joint fluid
- C. Reverse-transcription PCR on blood
- D. IgM serology alone
- E. An antigen test on urine
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Reverse-transcription PCR on blood detects viral RNA during the high-titre viraemia of the first week; IgM becomes useful from about day five.
IgG marks past infection, culture from joint fluid is usually negative, and there is no routine urinary antigen test.
- MCQ
In the Malaysian Nipah virus outbreak, which animal served as the amplifying (intermediate) host between the bat reservoir and humans?
- A. Pigs
- B. Horses
- C. Rodents
- D. Poultry
- E. Non-human primates
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Fruit bats are the Nipah reservoir, but pigs acted as the amplifying host in Malaysia, multiplying the virus and bridging it to farmers. (In the Bangladesh outbreaks transmission was direct, via date-palm sap.) Horses are the amplifying host for the related Hendra virus.
- MCQ
In the natural cycle of West Nile virus, humans and horses are best described as:
- A. Reservoir hosts
- B. Amplifying hosts
- C. Bridge vectors
- D. Enzootic hosts
- E. Dead-end hosts
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Humans and horses develop too little viraemia to infect feeding mosquitoes, so they are dead-end hosts; birds are the amplifying reservoir and Culex mosquitoes the vector. A dead-end host is infected but does not pass the virus onward.
- MCQ
In the northern European foci, symptomatic Sindbis disease falls disproportionately on:
- A. Young children during the winter months
- B. Newborn and breastfed infants
- C. Middle-aged adults, women more than men, in late summer
- D. Elderly men during the spring
- E. Returning international travellers from tropical countries
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Clinical Sindbis disease in northern Europe clusters in middle-aged adults, women more than men, in the late-summer season of peak mosquito activity.
It is not primarily a disease of children, infants, the elderly or travellers.
- MCQ
In the sylvatic (jungle) cycle of yellow fever, the principal vertebrate hosts are:
- A. Domestic pigs
- B. Wild aquatic birds
- C. Non-human primates
- D. Rodents
- E. Cattle
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The sylvatic cycle circulates between non-human primates and forest canopy mosquitoes, with humans infected incidentally when they enter the forest; this is why young men clearing land are most exposed.
Pigs amplify Japanese encephalitis, wild birds amplify West Nile and Japanese encephalitis, and rodents maintain hantaviruses and arenaviruses.
- MCQ
In the urban cycle of yellow fever, the virus is transmitted between humans by which mosquito?
- A. Anopheles gambiae
- B. Aedes aegypti
- C. Culex tritaeniorhynchus
- D. Haemagogus species
- E. Culex quinquefasciatus
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The urban cycle is driven by Aedes aegypti, a domestic container-breeding mosquito, with humans as the sole amplifying host. This is the cycle responsible for explosive city epidemics.
Anopheles transmits malaria, Culex tritaeniorhynchus transmits Japanese encephalitis, Haemagogus drives the sylvatic (jungle) cycle in the Americas, and Culex quinquefasciatus is a West Nile vector.
- MCQ
In Western equine encephalitis, severe disease is most likely in:
- A. Healthy young adults
- B. Infants
- C. Adolescents
- D. Middle-aged women
- E. People with prior immunity
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Western equine encephalitis is generally mild in adults but can be severe in infants, with seizures and a substantial risk of permanent brain damage in survivors.
The other groups are at lower risk.
- MCQ
In which grouping does Sindbis virus belong?
- A. New World encephalitic alphaviruses of the Americas
- B. Old World arthritogenic alphaviruses
- C. Mosquito-borne flaviviruses
- D. Tick-borne flaviviruses
- E. Bunyaviruses
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Sindbis is an Old World arthritogenic alphavirus, causing fever, rash and arthritis, and sits in the Western equine encephalitis antigenic complex despite its non-encephalitic disease.
The other groupings are separate genera or the encephalitic New World clade.
- MCQ
Japanese encephalitis virus is the prototype of which serocomplex?
- A. The Japanese encephalitis serocomplex
- B. The dengue serocomplex
- C. The Spondweni group
- D. The tick-borne encephalitis serocomplex
- E. The yellow fever group
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Japanese encephalitis virus is the prototype of the Japanese encephalitis serocomplex, which also contains West Nile, St Louis encephalitis and Murray Valley encephalitis viruses, and shares their neurotropism.
Dengue, Spondweni (which holds Zika), tick-borne encephalitis and yellow fever form separate serogroups.
- MCQ
Kunjin virus is best described as:
- A. A distinct flavivirus unrelated to West Nile virus
- B. The Australian subtype of West Nile virus (lineage 1b)
- C. A tick-borne encephalitis subtype
- D. The South African lineage 2 strain
- E. A vaccine strain of West Nile virus
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Kunjin virus is the Australian subtype of West Nile virus, classified within lineage 1b, and generally causes milder disease.
It is not a separate virus, a tick-borne agent, the African lineage 2 strain, or a vaccine strain.
- MCQ
Laboratory diagnosis of acute Rift Valley fever relies mainly on:
- A. Blood culture
- B. Identification of the tick vector involved
- C. RT-PCR and IgM-capture ELISA on blood
- D. Stool antigen detection
- E. Cerebrospinal fluid microscopy
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Because viraemia is high in the acute phase, reverse-transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) and immunoglobulin M (IgM) capture ELISA on blood are the mainstays, supported by virus isolation and paired serology.
RVF is mosquito-borne, so there is no tick to identify.
- MCQ
Madariaga virus is best described as:
- A. The live-attenuated laboratory-worker vaccine strain of Venezuelan virus
- B. A tick-borne relative within the group
- C. The reclassified South American Eastern virus, usually milder
- D. The single most virulent member of the complex
- E. Another name for Western equine encephalitis virus
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Madariaga virus is the species into which the South American strains formerly called Eastern equine encephalitis virus were reclassified, and it is generally much less virulent in people.
It is not a vaccine strain, not tick-borne, not the most virulent member, and not Western virus.
- MCQ
Measles virus is thought to have evolved as a human pathogen from which animal virus?
- A. Canine distemper virus
- B. Camelpox virus
- C. Rinderpest virus of cattle
- D. Swine influenza virus
- E. Bovine viral diarrhoea virus
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Measles probably evolved from rinderpest, a virus of cattle, once human populations grew large enough to sustain transmission without an animal reservoir, the birth of a crowd disease. Smallpox, by contrast, is most closely related to camelpox.
- MCQ
Most human RVF infection is acquired through:
- A. The bite of an infected tick
- B. Person-to-person contact
- C. Drinking untreated contaminated surface water
- D. The bite of an infected mosquito
- E. Contact with infected animal blood or tissue
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Although mosquitoes drive the animal epizootic, most people are infected by direct contact with the blood or tissues of infected livestock, during slaughter, birthing and the handling of aborted material.
Mosquito bite is a lesser route, and there is no person-to-person spread.
- MCQ
New World hantavirus outbreaks tend to follow...
- A. Cold, dry winters
- B. Tick season
- C. Migratory bird arrivals
- D. Wet years that boost rodent populations
- E. Large indoor gatherings
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Wet years, driven by the El Nino Southern Oscillation, boost rodent food and numbers, raising human contact and hantavirus cardiopulmonary cases.
Cold dry conditions reduce rodent numbers, and ticks, birds and indoor gatherings are irrelevant to a rodent-borne, non-arthropod virus.
- MCQ
New World hantaviruses classically cause which syndrome?
- A. Haemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome
- B. Encephalitis
- C. Hantavirus cardiopulmonary syndrome
- D. Polyarthritis
- E. Acute hepatitis
Show answer
Correct answer: C
New World hantaviruses, such as Sin Nombre and Andes, classically cause hantavirus cardiopulmonary syndrome, dominated by non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema and shock.
Haemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome is the Old World counterpart; encephalitis, polyarthritis and hepatitis are not hantavirus syndromes.
- MCQ
Newly emerging human viruses most often acquire their new genetic material by which route?
- A. Spillover from non-human animal reservoirs
- B. Spontaneous mutation in long-circulating human strains
- C. Laboratory recombination
- D. Reactivation of endogenous retroviruses
- E. Loss of genome segments
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Although viruses mutate constantly, pure mutation in human-adapted strains is an uncommon route to a new disease; most newly emerging viruses draw their new genetic material from infection of non-human species, that is, from zoonosis.
The other routes occur but do not account for the bulk of emergence.
- MCQ
On day 2 of illness, the most appropriate confirmatory tests for dengue are...
- A. IgG serology alone
- B. Blood culture
- C. NS1 antigen and RT-PCR
- D. The tourniquet test alone
- E. Convalescent serology only
Show answer
Correct answer: C
In the first few days the virus is detected directly, so NS1 antigen and RT-PCR are the tests of choice; RT-PCR also gives the serotype.
Serology is unreliable this early, blood culture does not grow the virus, and the tourniquet test supports assessment but does not confirm the diagnosis.
- MCQ
On the RVFV surface, the Gn and Gc glycoproteins form:
- A. A helical nucleocapsid
- B. Club-shaped haemagglutinin spikes
- C. Randomly scattered spikes over a matrix layer
- D. An icosahedral protein capsid enclosing the genome
- E. An ordered icosahedral glycoprotein lattice
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Gn and Gc are arranged as an ordered icosahedral lattice on the lipid envelope, a more regular surface than the pleomorphic nairoviruses, and there is no matrix protein.
The genome exists as a ribonucleoprotein, not an icosahedral capsid.
- MCQ
Pathogenic hantaviruses enter endothelial cells chiefly through...
- A. CD4
- B. ACE2
- C. Sialic acid
- D. Beta-3 integrins
- E. CCR5
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Pathogenic hantaviruses use beta-3 integrins, receptors that also regulate vascular permeability and platelet function, linking entry to disease; non-pathogenic species use beta-1 integrins.
CD4 and CCR5 are HIV receptors, ACE2 is used by SARS-CoV-2, and sialic acid is an influenza receptor.
- MCQ
Persistent chikungunya arthralgia is most likely in which patient?
- A. An older woman with severe acute illness
- B. A healthy young adult man with only mild fever
- C. A young, previously well child
- D. A recently vaccinated traveller
- E. A patient with brief low-grade fever
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Chronic joint symptoms, affecting on the order of 40% of adults, are predicted by older age, female sex, severe acute illness and high acute viral load.
Young age, mild disease and vaccination all make persistent arthralgia less likely.
- MCQ
Phylogenetic trees that are incongruent on either side of a genome breakpoint are evidence of:
- A. Antigenic drift
- B. A molecular clock
- C. Recombination
- D. Purifying selection
- E. A transmission bottleneck
Show answer
Correct answer: C
When different parts of a genome have different evolutionary histories, the trees disagree across the breakpoint, the signature of recombination. Comparing a virus tree with its host tree, by contrast, distinguishes codivergence from cross-species host jumping.
- MCQ
Pogosta fever, Ockelbo disease and Karelian fever are regional names for infection with which virus?
- A. Chikungunya virus
- B. Sindbis virus
- C. Ross River virus
- D. West Nile virus
- E. Tick-borne encephalitis virus
Show answer
Correct answer: B
These northern European names, from Finland, Sweden and Russia, all denote Sindbis virus disease.
Chikungunya and Ross River are other arthritogenic alphaviruses, and West Nile and tick-borne encephalitis are encephalitic flaviviruses.
- MCQ
Raising a virus's mutation rate with a mutagenic nucleoside until the population can no longer maintain viable genomes is called:
- A. Antigenic shift
- B. Genetic drift
- C. Lethal mutagenesis
- D. Reassortment
- E. Purifying selection
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Pushing the virus past its error threshold, so that fit genomes can no longer be regenerated, collapses the population: lethal mutagenesis, also called error catastrophe. The experimental agents are 5-fluorouracil and ribavirin, and the principle underlies modern mutagenic antivirals.
- MCQ
Reassortment can occur only in viruses that have:
- A. A DNA genome
- B. An envelope
- C. A single-stranded genome
- D. A segmented genome
- E. A proofreading polymerase
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Reassortment is the exchange of whole genome segments when two strains co-infect a cell, so it requires a segmented genome, as in influenza A. It is the molecular basis of antigenic shift.
- MCQ
Regarding hantavirus in South Africa, which statement is correct?
- A. It is endemic and commonly diagnosed
- B. Local rodents carry the New World cardiopulmonary strains
- C. It is not a notifiable condition
- D. It is transmitted by local ticks
- E. There is no documented local human disease; the realistic risk is an imported Andes case
Show answer
Correct answer: E
South Africa has no documented local human hantavirus disease, and the realistic risk is an imported Andes virus case in a traveller returning from South America.
Local rodents carry only mild native African hantaviruses, not the New World cardiopulmonary strains; hantavirus is a Category 1 notifiable condition; and it is rodent-borne, not tick-borne.
- MCQ
Ribavirin is of proven benefit in which situation?
- A. Established cardiopulmonary syndrome
- B. All hantavirus infections
- C. As routine post-exposure prophylaxis
- D. Only in children
- E. Early haemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Ribavirin helps HFRS when started early in the course of illness.
It has shown no benefit in the New World cardiopulmonary syndrome, and it is not used for all infections, as prophylaxis, or only in children.
- MCQ
Rift Valley fever retinitis characteristically appears:
- A. During the first 24 hours of the fever illness
- B. Only after several years
- C. At the same time as a rash
- D. Before any fever begins
- E. One to three weeks after the first symptoms
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Retinitis typically develops one to three weeks after the initial symptoms, sometimes after the fever has settled, and where it involves the macula it can cause permanent visual loss.
- MCQ
Rift Valley fever virus belongs to which family?
- A. Phenuiviridae
- B. Nairoviridae
- C. Hantaviridae
- D. Filoviridae
- E. Flaviviridae
Show answer
Correct answer: A
RVFV is a phlebovirus in the family Phenuiviridae, order Bunyavirales.
Nairoviridae (Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever) and Hantaviridae are the other bunyavirus families of note; filoviruses and flaviviruses are unrelated.
- MCQ
Rift Valley fever was first described, in 1930 to 1931, from which event?
- A. A human encephalitis outbreak in the Nile delta of Egypt
- B. An outbreak of abortion and lamb deaths on a Kenyan farm
- C. A haemorrhagic fever cluster in the Belgian Congo
- D. A tick-borne haemorrhagic fever among Crimean farm workers
- E. A mosquito survey along the East African coast
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Daubney and Hudson described the disease from an outbreak of abortions and lamb deaths on a farm in Kenya’s Rift Valley, naming it enzootic hepatitis.
The Egyptian, Congo and Crimean events belong to other viruses or to much later outbreaks.
- MCQ
RNA viruses most often recombine by which mechanism?
- A. Reassortment of whole segments
- B. Template switching during replication
- C. Double-strand break repair
- D. Rolling-circle replication
- E. Integration and excision
Show answer
Correct answer: B
In copy-choice recombination the polymerase switches from one template to another mid-synthesis, producing a hybrid genome, the dominant mechanism in RNA viruses. The other options describe segmented-genome or DNA-virus mechanisms.
- MCQ
RVFV is notably transmissible by which route, a recognised hazard to laboratory staff?
- A. Faecal-oral spread
- B. Aerosol
- C. Sexual contact
- D. Respiratory droplets coughed by patients
- E. Vertical transmission only
Show answer
Correct answer: B
RVFV is highly infectious by aerosol, which caused many laboratory-acquired infections before modern biosafety practice, and is one reason it is handled under enhanced containment.
It does not spread from patient to patient by droplets.
- MCQ
Sindbis virus holds what status within the alphaviruses?
- A. The prototype alphavirus, isolated in Egypt in 1952
- B. The first encephalitic alphavirus described in the Americas
- C. A recently discovered New World alphavirus
- D. The cause of the largest recorded arbovirus epidemics
- E. A tick-borne member of the genus
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Sindbis is the prototype alphavirus, isolated in 1952 near the village of Sindbis in the Nile Delta of Egypt, and became the reference virus for alphavirus structure and replication.
It is an Old World arthritogenic virus, not encephalitic, New World or tick-borne, and its outbreaks are modest rather than the largest recorded.
- MCQ
Successive, progressively taller peaks about one incubation period apart on an epidemic curve indicate:
- A. A point-source exposure
- B. A continuous common-source exposure
- C. A single contaminated meal eaten at one sitting
- D. Person-to-person (propagated) spread
- E. Random reporting noise
Show answer
Correct answer: D
A propagated curve reflects person-to-person, or vector, transmission, each wave infecting the next about one incubation period later. It contrasts with the single sharp peak of a point source.
- MCQ
Symptomatic CCHF classically progresses through which sequence of phases?
- A. Catarrhal, paroxysmal, then convalescent
- B. Febrile, hypotensive, oliguric, diuretic, then convalescent
- C. Incubation, prehaemorrhagic, haemorrhagic, convalescence
- D. Prodrome, remission, then encephalitic
- E. Acute, latent, then reactivation
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The course runs through incubation, a prehaemorrhagic phase, a haemorrhagic phase and convalescence.
The febrile-hypotensive-oliguric-diuretic sequence describes hantavirus haemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome, and a latent-reactivation pattern belongs to the herpesviruses.
- MCQ
The 1993 emergence of hantavirus pulmonary syndrome in the southwestern United States was linked to a climate-driven boom in which animal?
- A. Fruit bats
- B. Deer mice
- C. Ticks
- D. Migratory birds
- E. Prairie dogs
Show answer
Correct answer: B
An El Nino-driven drought-then-rainfall sequence produced a boom in deer-mouse numbers, raising human exposure to Sin Nombre virus and causing the outbreak. It illustrates how climate cycles drive reservoir population dynamics and spillover.
- MCQ
The 2004 to 2007 Indian Ocean epidemic was notable for what?
- A. It stayed confined to mainland Africa and its coastal islands
- B. It reached much of Reunion and adapted to Ae. albopictus
- C. It was transmitted mainly by hard ticks
- D. It caused predominantly fatal encephalitis
- E. It produced no lasting joint disease at all
Show answer
Correct answer: B
On Reunion the epidemic infected roughly a third of the population and selected the E1-A226V mutation that adapted the virus to Aedes albopictus.
It spread well beyond mainland Africa to India and Southeast Asia, remained mosquito-borne, and left substantial chronic arthralgia.
- MCQ
The bleeding tendency in severe CCHF is driven mainly by:
- A. Autoantibodies that destroy circulating platelets
- B. Vitamin K deficiency caused by hepatic failure
- C. Direct viral destruction of the entire vascular endothelium
- D. Host cytokine-driven endothelial injury with DIC
- E. Widespread thrombosis of the hepatic veins
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Severe CCHF bleeding reflects a dysregulated pro-inflammatory cytokine response, with high tumour necrosis factor alpha, interleukin-6 and interleukin-8, causing endothelial dysfunction and disseminated intravascular coagulation.
Direct lysis of all endothelium, autoantibodies and vitamin K deficiency are not the principal mechanism.
- MCQ
The CCHF incubation period is typically shortest after which exposure?
- A. A tick bite
- B. Contact with infected human blood
- C. Handling infected livestock tissue
- D. A nosocomial needlestick injury
- E. Contact with a viraemic patient's secretions
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Incubation is shortest after a tick bite, usually about one to three days. After exposure to infected blood or tissue it is longer, around five to seven days and occasionally up to thirteen.
All the blood- and tissue-contact routes give a longer interval than the tick bite.
- MCQ
The CCHFV L protein's ovarian-tumour (OTU) domain aids immune evasion by:
- A. Cleaving the viral glycoprotein precursor into the Gn and Gc subunits
- B. Adding a methyl cap to viral messenger RNA
- C. Stripping ubiquitin and ISG15 from signalling proteins
- D. Integrating a DNA copy into the host genome
- E. Preventing assembly of the host ribosome
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The OTU domain is a deubiquitinase and deISGylase: it removes regulatory ubiquitin and ISG15 tags from innate-immune signalling proteins, damping the type I interferon response.
Glycoprotein cleavage, capping, integration and translational shut-off are unrelated to this domain.
- MCQ
The cell-surface receptor Mxra8 promotes entry of which arboviruses?
- A. Mosquito-borne flaviviruses
- B. Arthritogenic Old World alphaviruses
- C. Encephalitic New World alphaviruses
- D. Tick-borne flaviviruses
- E. Phleboviruses
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Mxra8 is used by the arthritogenic Old World alphaviruses, chikungunya, o’nyong-nyong, Ross River and Mayaro viruses, a molecular correlate of the rash-and-arthritis clade.
It has no role for the encephalitic New World alphaviruses, and the flaviviruses and phleboviruses use unrelated entry factors.
- MCQ
The classic acute presentation of chikungunya is:
- A. Fever, jaundice, bleeding and circulatory shock
- B. Fever, encephalitis and flaccid paralysis
- C. Fever, cough and pneumonia
- D. Fever, lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly
- E. Fever, polyarthralgia and maculopapular rash
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Chikungunya presents with high fever, severe symmetrical polyarthralgia and a maculopapular rash in around 80% of patients.
Jaundice and bleeding suggest a haemorrhagic fever, encephalitis and paralysis suggest an encephalitic arbovirus, and the other pictures point elsewhere.
- MCQ
The classic biphasic course of tick-borne encephalitis (a febrile illness, a remission, then a neurological phase) is most typical of which subtypes?
- A. The Far-Eastern subtype only
- B. No subtype; the course is monophasic
- C. The European and Siberian subtypes
- D. Only laboratory-acquired cases
- E. Only milk-borne cases
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The European and Siberian subtypes classically run a biphasic course: a grippe-like first phase, a symptom-free remission, then in a minority a neurological second phase. The Far-Eastern subtype is usually monophasic, progressing straight into severe disease.
The course is not confined to laboratory-acquired or milk-borne cases.
- MCQ
The classic phase sequence of haemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome is...
- A. Febrile, hypotensive, oliguric, diuretic, convalescent
- B. Oliguric, febrile, then diuretic
- C. Cardiopulmonary, then renal
- D. Prodrome, rash, desquamation
- E. Latency, then reactivation
Show answer
Correct answer: A
HFRS runs through febrile, hypotensive, oliguric, diuretic and convalescent phases, with the greatest danger in the hypotensive and oliguric stages.
The other sequences are invented or belong to other diseases.
- MCQ
The current human vaccine situation for Rift Valley fever is:
- A. A live-attenuated human vaccine is used routinely across all endemic areas
- B. An mRNA vaccine is licensed in endemic areas
- C. It is included in the childhood immunisation schedule
- D. No vaccine exists or is in development
- E. No licensed vaccine, but a single-dose ChAdOx1 candidate is in trials
Show answer
Correct answer: E
There is no licensed human RVF vaccine; the most advanced candidate, ChAdOx1 RVF, was safe and immunogenic after a single dose in a phase 1 trial and is designed for both livestock and people.
Older inactivated preparations have protected only small numbers of laboratory and veterinary workers.
- MCQ
The current status of hantavirus vaccination is best described as...
- A. A live-attenuated vaccine used worldwide
- B. An mRNA vaccine in routine schedules
- C. Inactivated vaccines used in parts of Asia, none widely licensed elsewhere
- D. No vaccine has ever been developed
- E. A universal childhood vaccine
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Inactivated vaccines against Hantaan and Seoul viruses are used in parts of Asia, but none is widely licensed elsewhere, so prevention rests on avoiding rodent contact.
There is no worldwide live-attenuated, mRNA or universal childhood hantavirus vaccine, and vaccines against the New World species do not exist.
- MCQ
The dengue NS1 protein is clinically useful because it...
- A. Is the main neutralising-antibody target
- B. Forms the viral capsid
- C. Is a secreted antigen detectable early in infection
- D. Is the viral RNA polymerase
- E. Mediates receptor binding
Show answer
Correct answer: C
NS1 is secreted from infected cells and circulates in the blood, giving an early antigen test in the first few days of illness; it also contributes to the endothelial leak.
The envelope protein is the neutralising target, the capsid protein forms the capsid, NS5 is the polymerase, and the envelope protein mediates receptor binding.
- MCQ
The dengue vaccine Dengvaxia is restricted to people who are...
- A. Dengue-naive
- B. Under 6 months old
- C. Seropositive for a prior dengue infection
- D. Pregnant
- E. Over 60 years old
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Dengvaxia is restricted to people with confirmed prior dengue infection, because in dengue-naive recipients it behaves like a first infection and primes for severe disease.
It is therefore not for the dengue-naive, and age and pregnancy are not the defining restriction.
- MCQ
The difference between quarantine and isolation is that:
- A. They mean exactly the same thing
- B. Quarantine applies only to animals
- C. Isolation is only used after recovery
- D. Both describe separating patients who have already developed symptoms
- E. Quarantine is for the exposed but well; isolation for the ill
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Quarantine separates people who may be incubating an infection but are not yet ill, while isolation separates those who are already infectious. Quarantine loses value once a disease can travel internationally faster than its incubation period.
- MCQ
The E1-A226V substitution acquired during the Indian Ocean epidemic did what?
- A. Conferred resistance to the licensed antivirals
- B. Reduced virulence in humans
- C. Increased transmission by Aedes albopictus
- D. Removed the need for a mosquito vector
- E. Enabled tick transmission
Show answer
Correct answer: C
E1-A226V improved viral fitness in Aedes albopictus, a hardier and more temperate mosquito, extending the virus’s potential range.
It did not alter antiviral susceptibility, attenuate the virus, remove the vector requirement, or enable tick transmission.
- MCQ
The enzootic cycle of Eastern equine encephalitis virus involves:
- A. Passerine birds and Culiseta melanura in freshwater swamps
- B. Forest rodents and Culex (Melanoconion) mosquitoes in tropical swamps
- C. Horses and Psorophora floodwater mosquitoes
- D. Humans and Aedes aegypti in cities
- E. Ticks and swamp-dwelling deer
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Eastern equine encephalitis virus cycles between passerine birds and the mosquito Culiseta melanura in freshwater hardwood swamps of eastern North America, with less host-specific bridge vectors carrying it to people and horses.
The rodent cycle belongs to Venezuelan virus, and the other pairings are wrong.
- MCQ
The eosinophilic apoptotic hepatocytes characteristic of fatal yellow fever are known as:
- A. Negri bodies
- B. Guarnieri bodies
- C. Cowdry type A bodies
- D. Councilman bodies
- E. Downey cells
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Councilman bodies are apoptotic hepatocytes, the dominant mechanism of liver injury in yellow fever, seen with midzonal coagulative necrosis and strikingly little inflammation; intranuclear Torres bodies also occur.
Negri bodies are seen in rabies, Guarnieri bodies in poxvirus infection, Cowdry type A inclusions in herpesvirus infection, and Downey cells are the atypical lymphocytes of Epstein-Barr virus.
- MCQ
The first confirmed emergence of RVFV outside Africa occurred in:
- A. Egypt in 1977
- B. India in 2010
- C. Saudi Arabia and Yemen in 2000
- D. The southern coast of France in 2014
- E. Madagascar in 1979
Show answer
Correct answer: C
In 2000 RVFV appeared in Saudi Arabia and Yemen, its first confirmed spread beyond Africa, probably carried across the Red Sea in infected livestock.
Egypt and Madagascar are within Africa, and the Indian and European events did not occur.
- MCQ
The genus name "Hantavirus" derives from...
- A. The Hantaan River, where Hantaan virus was found
- B. The scientist who discovered it
- C. A rodent species
- D. A Greek word for kidney
- E. The first known patient
Show answer
Correct answer: A
The genus is named after the Hantaan River in South Korea, near where Ho-Wang Lee isolated Hantaan virus from the striped field mouse in the 1970s.
It is not named for a scientist, a rodent, a Greek root or a patient.
- MCQ
The haemorrhagic form of Rift Valley fever carries a case fatality of about:
- A. Less than 1%
- B. Around 5%
- C. Around 20%
- D. Up to 65%
- E. Close to 100%
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The haemorrhagic-hepatic form is the most lethal, with a case fatality of up to around 65%.
The milder febrile illness that most patients experience has a very low mortality.
- MCQ
The hantavirus genome consists of...
- A. A single positive-sense RNA
- B. Three negative-sense RNA segments (L, M and S)
- C. Double-stranded DNA
- D. Eight RNA segments
- E. Two ambisense DNA segments
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Hantaviruses carry three negative-sense RNA segments, large, medium and small, encoding the polymerase, the glycoproteins and the nucleocapsid respectively.
The genome is not a single positive-sense strand, DNA of any kind, or an eight-segment genome (that is influenza).
- MCQ
The hantavirus M segment encodes...
- A. The nucleocapsid protein
- B. The RNA polymerase
- C. The Gn and Gc envelope glycoproteins
- D. A matrix protein
- E. Reverse transcriptase
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The M segment encodes a precursor cleaved into the Gn and Gc envelope glycoproteins, which mediate receptor binding and fusion.
The S segment encodes the nucleocapsid, the L segment the polymerase; hantaviruses have no matrix protein and no reverse transcriptase.
- MCQ
The incubation period of Rift Valley fever is typically:
- A. A few hours
- B. 10 to 14 days
- C. 2 to 6 days
- D. 2 to 6 weeks
- E. 1 to 3 months
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The incubation period is short, usually 2 to 6 days, after which most people have a brief self-limiting fever.
The longer intervals describe other infections.
- MCQ
The incubation period of Sindbis virus infection is approximately:
- A. Several hours
- B. 3 to 6 weeks
- C. 2 to 3 months
- D. 2 to 8 days
- E. Over 3 months
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The incubation period is about two to eight days, after which fever, rash and arthralgia begin together.
The other intervals are far too short or too long.
- MCQ
The incubation period of the equine encephalitis viruses is on the order of:
- A. Several hours
- B. 4 to 8 weeks
- C. 2 to 3 months
- D. 2 to 10 days
- E. Over 3 months
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The incubation period is about two to ten days, varying by virus, followed by a febrile prodrome that may progress to encephalitis.
The other intervals are far too short or too long.
- MCQ
The M, N and O groups of HIV-1 are best explained by:
- A. A single mutation in a human virus
- B. Reassortment of two human retroviruses
- C. Recombination with an endogenous retrovirus
- D. Several separate spillovers of SIV
- E. Laboratory contamination
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Each HIV-1 group arose from a separate spillover of simian immunodeficiency virus (SIV) from chimpanzees or gorillas, after which human-to-human transmission established the pandemic. The multiple groups are the signature of repeated independent cross-species transfers.
- MCQ
The main adult neurological complication linked to Zika virus infection is:
- A. Poliomyelitis-like anterior horn cell paralysis
- B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
- C. Parkinsonism
- D. Transverse myelitis alone
- E. Guillain-Barré syndrome
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Guillain-Barré syndrome, a post-infectious ascending flaccid paralysis, is the principal adult neurological complication and was the first severe outcome linked to Zika during the French Polynesian outbreak.
Anterior-horn paralysis is characteristic of West Nile virus, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis of measles, and parkinsonism of Japanese encephalitis.
- MCQ
The mainstay of hantavirus diagnosis at presentation is...
- A. Viral culture
- B. IgM-capture serology
- C. The blood film
- D. An antigen skin test
- E. Rodent trapping
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Serology is the mainstay, and IgM is usually detectable at symptom onset because patients present after the short viraemic phase.
Culture is impractical, there is no antigen skin test, the blood film is not diagnostic, and rodent trapping is an environmental, not a clinical, tool.
- MCQ
The mainstay of laboratory diagnosis of tick-borne encephalitis is:
- A. Virus isolation from cerebrospinal fluid
- B. IgM-capture ELISA on serum and cerebrospinal fluid
- C. Blood culture
- D. Tick identification alone
- E. Electroencephalography
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Diagnosis rests on serology, chiefly IgM-capture ELISA on serum and cerebrospinal fluid, with a fourfold titre rise in paired sera confirming; serum IgM can persist for several months.
Virus is rarely isolated once neurological disease has begun, and the other options are not diagnostic tests for the virus.
- MCQ
The management and prevention of Sindbis virus infection rests on:
- A. A licensed live-attenuated single-dose vaccine
- B. Early specific antiviral therapy
- C. Supportive care and mosquito-bite avoidance
- D. Post-exposure immunoglobulin
- E. Antibiotic prophylaxis
Show answer
Correct answer: C
There is no specific antiviral and no licensed vaccine, so care is supportive and prevention rests on avoiding mosquito bites in the wetland and woodland settings where the vectors are active.
The other measures do not apply to Sindbis virus.
- MCQ
The name "chikungunya" derives from a Makonde word describing what?
- A. A Makonde word for the stooped posture from joint pain
- B. A Swahili word describing a widespread haemorrhagic rash
- C. A Makonde word for sudden high fever
- D. A local word for mosquito-borne spread
- E. A word for a recurrent, relapsing illness
Show answer
Correct answer: A
The name is a Makonde word for the contorted, stooped posture that severe joint pain forces, from the 1952 epidemic on the Makonde Plateau of what is now Tanzania.
The other options describe real features of the illness but none is the origin of the name.
- MCQ
The name Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever reflects which historical fact?
- A. It was isolated in Crimea and the Congo at the same time
- B. It is carried by ticks unique to those two regions
- C. A Crimean fever and a separate Congo virus proved identical
- D. Two researchers from Crimea and the Congo jointly discovered it
- E. It causes different diseases in Crimea and the Congo
Show answer
Correct answer: C
In 1969 Jordi Casals showed that the agent of Crimean haemorrhagic fever was identical to the Congo virus isolated in the Belgian Congo in 1956, and the two names were joined.
The virus was described in the Crimea in 1944 but not isolated until 1967; it was not co-discovered, and it causes one disease across its range.
- MCQ
The natural enzootic cycle of West Nile virus is maintained between:
- A. Pigs and Culex mosquitoes
- B. Birds and Culex mosquitoes
- C. Non-human primates and Aedes mosquitoes
- D. Rodents and Ixodes ticks
- E. Humans and Aedes aegypti
Show answer
Correct answer: B
West Nile virus cycles between birds, which develop a prolonged high-titre viraemia and act as amplifying hosts, and Culex mosquitoes. Humans and horses are incidental hosts.
Pigs amplify Japanese encephalitis, non-human primates maintain sylvatic yellow fever and Zika, rodents and Ixodes ticks maintain tick-borne encephalitis, and Aedes aegypti drives urban yellow fever and dengue.
- MCQ
The natural transmission cycle of Sindbis virus involves:
- A. Wild birds and Culex or Culiseta mosquitoes
- B. Forest rodents and container-breeding Aedes mosquitoes
- C. Horses and Psorophora mosquitoes
- D. Humans and Anopheles mosquitoes
- E. Ticks and small woodland mammals
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Sindbis is maintained between wild passerine birds and ornithophilic Culex and Culiseta mosquitoes, with migratory birds dispersing it over long distances.
Humans are incidental hosts, and the other host and vector pairings belong to different arboviruses.
- MCQ
The near-universal thrombocytopenia in hantavirus disease is chiefly due to...
- A. Bone-marrow aplasia
- B. Splenic sequestration alone
- C. Platelet consumption at damaged endothelium
- D. A dietary vitamin deficiency
- E. Autoantibodies against megakaryocytes
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Platelets are consumed at the damaged, activated endothelium rather than failing to be produced, and the fall is an early diagnostic clue.
Marrow production is preserved, and sequestration, vitamin deficiency and anti-megakaryocyte autoantibodies are not the mechanism.
- MCQ
The Parkinson-like movement disorder of Japanese encephalitis reflects a viral predilection for which brain region?
- A. The substantia nigra and basal ganglia
- B. The cerebellar vermis
- C. The occipital cortex
- D. The hippocampus
- E. The anterior pituitary
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Japanese encephalitis virus has a predilection for the deep grey matter, especially the substantia nigra and basal ganglia, producing extrapyramidal features and a Parkinson-like syndrome that often appears in convalescence.
The cerebellum, occipital cortex, hippocampus and pituitary are not the characteristic targets.
- MCQ
The poliomyelitis-like acute flaccid paralysis of West Nile neuroinvasive disease results from injury to which structure?
- A. The cerebellar cortex
- B. Peripheral sensory nerves
- C. The posterior columns
- D. Anterior horn cells of the spinal cord
- E. The neuromuscular junction
Show answer
Correct answer: D
West Nile virus injures the anterior horn cells (lower motor neurons) of the spinal cord, producing an asymmetric flaccid paralysis that resembles poliomyelitis and can occur without meningitis or encephalitis.
Cerebellar, sensory-nerve, posterior-column and neuromuscular-junction lesions give different clinical pictures.
- MCQ
The principal advantage of syndromic surveillance is that it:
- A. Confirms the precise causative organism in every case
- B. Achieves very high diagnostic specificity
- C. Requires no electronic or automated systems
- D. Removes the need for laboratory testing
- E. Detects signals early, before diagnoses are made
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Syndromic surveillance monitors symptom patterns before a diagnosis is established, so its strength is timeliness, catching a rise early. The trade-off is low specificity, so signals still need laboratory confirmation.
- MCQ
The principal mosquito vector of Zika virus is:
- A. Culex tritaeniorhynchus
- B. Aedes aegypti
- C. Anopheles gambiae
- D. Ixodes ricinus
- E. Haemagogus species
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Zika virus is transmitted mainly by Aedes aegypti, with a sylvatic Aedes-and-monkey cycle in Africa; the same vector transmits dengue and urban yellow fever.
Culex tritaeniorhynchus transmits Japanese encephalitis, Anopheles transmits malaria, Ixodes is a tick vector of tick-borne encephalitis, and Haemagogus drives sylvatic yellow fever.
- MCQ
The principal target organ in severe Rift Valley fever is the:
- A. Liver
- B. Kidney
- C. Lung
- D. Spleen
- E. Heart
Show answer
Correct answer: A
The liver is the main target and hepatic necrosis is the central lesion of severe RVF, reflected in steeply raised transaminases and, in the worst cases, jaundice and liver failure.
Renal failure occurs but is usually secondary.
- MCQ
The principal urban vector of dengue is...
- A. Culex quinquefasciatus
- B. Anopheles gambiae
- C. A Hyalomma tick
- D. Ixodes ricinus
- E. Aedes aegypti
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Aedes aegypti, a day-biting, container-breeding mosquito adapted to human dwellings, is the principal urban vector, with Aedes albopictus secondary.
Culex transmits West Nile and Japanese encephalitis, Anopheles transmits malaria, and the ticks listed transmit tick-borne, not mosquito-borne, viruses.
- MCQ
The principal vector of Japanese encephalitis virus is a mosquito that breeds chiefly in:
- A. Tree holes in forest canopy
- B. Rice paddies and ground pools (Culex tritaeniorhynchus)
- C. Domestic water containers (Aedes aegypti)
- D. Brackish coastal marsh
- E. Rodent burrows
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Culex tritaeniorhynchus, which breeds in rice paddies and other ground pools, is the principal vector, linking the disease to irrigated rice agriculture across Asia.
Tree-hole and container-breeding Aedes transmit yellow fever, dengue and Zika, not Japanese encephalitis.
- MCQ
The quasispecies idea of 'survival of the flattest' describes how:
- A. The single fittest genome always wins out
- B. Larger viral genomes consistently outcompete smaller ones
- C. Mutation ceases once a fitness peak is reached
- D. Drift erases all standing variation in the population
- E. A robust, moderate-fitness swarm outcompetes a sharp peak
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Under a very high mutation rate, a cluster of variants with moderate but robust fitness can outcompete a population built around one high-fitness variant surrounded by poor neighbours. Selection acts on the whole quasispecies, not the single best genome.
- MCQ
The rash of Sindbis virus infection is typically:
- A. A faint blanching macular rash sparing the trunk and limbs
- B. A vesicular rash confined to one dermatome
- C. Petechiae confined to the lower legs
- D. A single painless indurated ulcer
- E. An itchy maculopapular rash, sometimes on palms and soles
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The rash is maculopapular and often intensely itchy, spread over the trunk and limbs and sometimes involving the palms and soles, occasionally with a central vesicle or a haemorrhagic quality.
It is neither dermatomal, purely petechial, nor an ulcer.
- MCQ
The reservoir of Sin Nombre virus, the main cause of cardiopulmonary syndrome in North America, is the...
- A. Deer mouse
- B. Brown rat
- C. Bank vole
- D. Striped field mouse
- E. Yellow-necked mouse
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Sin Nombre virus is carried by the deer mouse (Peromyscus maniculatus), and its numbers, and human cases, rise in wet years.
The brown rat carries Seoul, the bank vole Puumala, the striped field mouse Hantaan and the yellow-necked mouse Dobrava-Belgrade.
- MCQ
The RVFV NSs protein is its major virulence factor because it:
- A. Serves as the viral polymerase
- B. Forms the envelope glycoprotein surface spikes
- C. Antagonises the type I interferon response
- D. Builds the viral nucleocapsid
- E. Mediates host-cell receptor binding
Show answer
Correct answer: C
NSs is the dominant virulence factor: it suppresses the type I interferon response, shutting down host-cell transcription and blocking interferon-beta induction.
The polymerase, glycoproteins and nucleocapsid are separate gene products.
- MCQ
The secreted mucin-like glycoprotein cleaved from the CCHFV M-segment precursor is:
- A. NSm
- B. GP38
- C. The nucleoprotein
- D. Gc
- E. NSs
Show answer
Correct answer: B
GP38 is a secreted glycoprotein cleaved from the M-segment precursor and an important target of protective antibodies.
The same precursor also yields the structural Gn and Gc and the non-structural NSm; the nucleoprotein is an S-segment product, and NSs is a phlebovirus protein not carried by CCHFV.
- MCQ
The single greatest risk factor for severe dengue is...
- A. A first infection in an adult
- B. Co-infection with malaria
- C. Prior yellow fever vaccination
- D. A second infection with a different serotype
- E. Male sex
Show answer
Correct answer: D
A second infection with a different serotype is the single greatest risk factor for severe dengue, acting through antibody-dependent enhancement.
A first infection, malaria co-infection, prior flavivirus vaccination and sex are not the principal drivers, though infants of immune mothers are a related special case.
- MCQ
The standard laboratory test for confirming Japanese encephalitis is:
- A. Blood culture for the virus
- B. Nucleic-acid testing of blood after two weeks
- C. IgM-capture ELISA on serum and cerebrospinal fluid
- D. Electroencephalography
- E. Brain biopsy
Show answer
Correct answer: C
IgM-capture ELISA on serum and cerebrospinal fluid is the standard test, with sensitivity approaching 100% when both are tested one to two weeks after onset; cerebrospinal-fluid IgM indicates central nervous system infection. Flavivirus cross-reactivity is the main limitation.
Virus is rarely isolated, blood is cleared early, and electroencephalography and biopsy are not confirmatory.
- MCQ
The typical incubation period of chikungunya is:
- A. A few hours
- B. 3 to 6 weeks
- C. 2 to 12 days
- D. 2 to 3 months
- E. Over 6 months
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The incubation period is about two to twelve days, most often three to seven, after which fever and arthralgia begin abruptly.
The other intervals are far too short or too long for chikungunya.
- MCQ
The typical incubation period of hantavirus disease is...
- A. 1 to 2 days
- B. About 3 months
- C. About 6 hours
- D. About 1 year
- E. 2 to 3 weeks
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Both syndromes typically begin about two to three weeks after exposure, after which a febrile prodrome opens the illness.
An interval of days, hours, months or a year does not fit the usual incubation.
- MCQ
The typical presentation of Venezuelan equine encephalitis in humans is:
- A. A self-limited influenza-like illness, encephalitis in a minority
- B. An almost invariably fatal necrotising encephalitis
- C. A chronic destructive polyarthritis
- D. A viral haemorrhagic fever with heavy bleeding and circulatory shock
- E. An entirely asymptomatic infection in everyone
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Most people with Venezuelan equine encephalitis have a self-limited influenza-like febrile illness, and only a minority, mainly children, develop encephalitis.
It is not usually fatal, arthritic, haemorrhagic, or silent in everyone.
- MCQ
The urban transmission cycle of yellow fever, dengue and Zika viruses is maintained mainly by which mosquito?
- A. Anopheles gambiae
- B. Culex pipiens
- C. Aedes aegypti
- D. Culicoides species
- E. Ixodes ricinus
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The urban cycle is a human-to-human loop transmitted by Aedes aegypti, distinct from the sylvatic (jungle) cycle that maintains these viruses among forest animals and forest mosquitoes. Anopheles transmits malaria, and Ixodes is a tick.
- MCQ
The vascular leak of hantavirus disease is chiefly caused by...
- A. Direct viral destruction of endothelium
- B. An immune-mediated increase in capillary permeability
- C. A bacterial co-infection
- D. Widespread microthrombosis
- E. Antibody-dependent enhancement
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Hantaviruses infect endothelium without killing it, and disease follows from an immune-mediated rise in capillary permeability, so the injury is functional and reversible.
Direct lysis, bacterial co-infection and thrombosis are not the mechanism, and antibody-dependent enhancement is a dengue phenomenon.
- MCQ
The Zika virus strains responsible for the Pacific and American epidemics belong to which lineage?
- A. The Asian lineage
- B. The African lineage
- C. The European lineage
- D. The Kunjin sublineage
- E. A tick-borne lineage
Show answer
Correct answer: A
The Pacific and American epidemic strains descend from the Asian lineage; Zika virus sits in the Spondweni serocomplex and exists as a single serotype with African and Asian lineages.
There is no European or tick-borne Zika lineage, and Kunjin is a subtype of West Nile virus.
- MCQ
Tick-borne encephalitis virus is transmitted by which ticks?
- A. Ixodes ricinus and Ixodes persulcatus
- B. Amblyomma hebraeum
- C. Rhipicephalus (Boophilus) species
- D. Hyalomma marginatum
- E. Dermacentor andersoni
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Ixodes ricinus transmits tick-borne encephalitis in Europe and Ixodes persulcatus in Russia and Asia; Ixodes ricinus also transmits Lyme borreliosis, so co-infection can occur.
Hyalomma ticks transmit Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever, and the other genera are not the vectors of tick-borne encephalitis.
- MCQ
To avoid hantavirus infection when cleaning a rodent-infested space, one should...
- A. Sweep and vacuum dry to remove droppings quickly
- B. Use only a feather duster
- C. Rely on a routine vaccine
- D. Take prophylactic ribavirin
- E. Ventilate the area, then wet it before cleaning
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The area should be ventilated and then wetted before cleaning, so the virus is not aerosolised.
Dry sweeping or vacuuming does exactly the opposite; there is no routine vaccine and no role for prophylactic ribavirin.
- MCQ
Uncomplicated Rift Valley fever usually presents as:
- A. A slowly progressive wasting illness over months
- B. An abrupt, often biphasic influenza-like fever
- C. A maculopapular rash without fever
- D. Painless obstructive jaundice
- E. A chronic relapsing arthritis
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Most infections are an abrupt, often biphasic influenza-like illness with fever, myalgia, arthralgia and headache, sometimes with photophobia and neck stiffness that can mimic meningitis, resolving over four to seven days.
- MCQ
Under the One Health approach, the most effective way to prevent human RVF is:
- A. Mass vaccination of the human population
- B. Isolation and barrier nursing of patients
- C. Antiviral prophylaxis for close contacts
- D. Vaccination of livestock
- E. Eliminating every mosquito breeding site
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Because livestock amplify the virus and are the main source of human infection, vaccinating animals is the most effective way to protect people, the logic of One Health.
Patients are not infectious to others, and mosquito eradication is not feasible during floods.
- MCQ
Vertical transmission of chikungunya is most likely when:
- A. The mother was infected during the first trimester of pregnancy
- B. The mother is viraemic around the time of delivery
- C. The mother has chronic arthralgia
- D. The mother was immune before pregnancy
- E. The infant is breastfed
Show answer
Correct answer: B
A mother who is viraemic around the time of delivery transmits to the newborn in roughly half of cases, causing a severe neonatal encephalopathy.
Early-pregnancy infection, chronic arthralgia, pre-existing immunity and breastfeeding are not the main route of peripartum vertical transmission.
- MCQ
West Nile virus belongs to which antigenic serocomplex?
- A. Japanese encephalitis serocomplex
- B. Dengue serocomplex
- C. Yellow fever group
- D. Tick-borne encephalitis serocomplex
- E. Spondweni group
Show answer
Correct answer: A
West Nile virus sits in the Japanese encephalitis serocomplex, alongside Japanese encephalitis, St Louis encephalitis and Murray Valley encephalitis viruses, which shares its neuroinvasive tendency and drives cross-reactivity in serology.
Dengue, yellow fever, tick-borne encephalitis and the Spondweni group (which contains Zika) are separate serocomplexes.
- MCQ
What best explains the chronic arthralgia of chikungunya?
- A. Permanent joint destruction during the acute illness
- B. Autoantibodies that cross-react with joint cartilage and bone
- C. Secondary bacterial infection of the joint space
- D. Persistent synovial viral RNA and macrophage inflammation
- E. Immune-complex deposition within the cartilage
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Viral RNA and antigen persist in synovial macrophages and fibroblasts, sustaining local inflammation with interleukin-6 and other mediators.
Radiographs usually show soft-tissue swelling rather than destruction, and the mechanism is not autoantibody, bacterial infection or classic immune-complex deposition.
- MCQ
What drives large epidemics of Venezuelan equine encephalitis?
- A. Direct person-to-person respiratory droplet spread
- B. Amplification of an epizootic strain in horses
- C. Contaminated municipal water supplies
- D. The bite of forest-dwelling ticks
- E. Airborne spread between wild birds
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Epidemics arise when mutation of an enzootic strain produces a variant that replicates to high titre in horses, which then amplify the virus for floodwater mosquitoes to spread.
It is not spread person-to-person, through water, by ticks, or between birds.
- MCQ
What is notable about Sindbis virus pathogenesis?
- A. It causes rapidly fatal encephalitis in most infected people
- B. In humans it replicates only within central-nervous-system neurons
- C. Disease results from direct cytopathic destruction of joint cartilage
- D. It circulates with no vertebrate animal reservoir
- E. A classic mouse encephalitis model, but human disease is arthritic
Show answer
Correct answer: E
In the mouse, Sindbis is the classic model of age-dependent viral encephalomyelitis, but human infection spares the nervous system and produces an arthritis, driven by macrophage inflammation rather than direct cell killing.
It does not cause encephalitis in people, is not neuron-restricted in humans, and has a wild-bird reservoir.
- MCQ
What is the correct approach to severe hantavirus cardiopulmonary syndrome?
- A. Fluid restriction with inotropes and ECMO if needed
- B. Aggressive fluid loading
- C. High-dose corticosteroids
- D. Empirical antibiotics alone
- E. Immediate haemodialysis
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Cardiopulmonary syndrome is managed with careful fluid restriction, inotropic support and, in the most severe cases, extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO), which improves survival in referral centres.
Aggressive fluid loading worsens the pulmonary oedema, corticosteroids and antibiotics are not effective, and dialysis belongs to the renal syndrome.
- MCQ
What is the current human vaccine situation for CCHF?
- A. A live-attenuated vaccine is given routinely
- B. A recombinant subunit vaccine is WHO-approved
- C. An mRNA vaccine is now licensed across all endemic regions
- D. Universal childhood vaccination covers Africa
- E. Only an inactivated vaccine, used in Bulgaria, exists
Show answer
Correct answer: E
No CCHF vaccine is widely licensed; an inactivated suckling-mouse-brain preparation used in Bulgaria is the only one in human use, and its efficacy has never been rigorously characterised.
Modern inactivated, virus-like-particle, vectored, DNA and subunit candidates remain in early development.
- MCQ
What is the current status of Zika virus vaccines?
- A. A live-attenuated vaccine is on the routine schedule
- B. An inactivated vaccine is required for travel
- C. A single-dose vaccine gives lifelong protection
- D. A maternal vaccine is licensed for pregnancy
- E. No vaccine is licensed, though candidates are in clinical trials
Show answer
Correct answer: E
No Zika vaccine is licensed, although several candidates have advanced into clinical trials. Development is complicated by the need to protect pregnant women and by the theoretical concern that flavivirus antibody could enhance dengue infection.
The other statements describe vaccines that do not exist for Zika.
- MCQ
What is the mainstay of treatment for West Nile neuroinvasive disease?
- A. Supportive care, including ventilation for respiratory failure
- B. Intravenous ribavirin
- C. Oral favipiravir
- D. High-dose corticosteroids
- E. Neutralising monoclonal antibody
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Management is supportive, with intensive care and ventilatory support for the respiratory failure that follows bulbar or respiratory-muscle involvement. No antiviral has shown benefit in controlled study.
Ribavirin, favipiravir, corticosteroids and monoclonal antibodies remain investigational and are not standard care.
- MCQ
What is the relevance of the equine encephalitis viruses to South African practice?
- A. They are a common cause of locally acquired viral encephalitis
- B. They are endemic across the central and interior plateau of the whole country
- C. They are transmitted by hard ticks found across South Africa
- D. They were eliminated locally by routine vaccination
- E. An imported differential in a traveller returning from the Americas
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The equine encephalitis viruses are New World agents not found in South Africa, so their relevance is as an imported differential in a traveller returning from the Americas.
The locally important alphaviruses are instead Sindbis, Middelburg and Ndumu; these viruses are not endemic, tick-borne, or locally eliminated.
- MCQ
What is the significance of South Africa in the epidemiology of Sindbis virus?
- A. It has reported no recognised human cases
- B. It is the only region worldwide where an encephalitic form predominates
- C. It transmits the virus mainly by ticks
- D. It is a principal focus, linked to Europe by migratory birds
- E. It eliminated the virus through routine vaccination
Show answer
Correct answer: D
South Africa is one of the two principal foci of Sindbis disease, and the close genetic link between its strains and the northern European strains shows the virus is carried between them by migratory birds.
It reports regular summer cases, is not tick-borne, and has no vaccine-based elimination.
- MCQ
What is the treatment for tick-borne encephalitis?
- A. Oral acyclovir
- B. Intravenous ribavirin
- C. Doxycycline
- D. A specific monoclonal antibody
- E. Supportive care, as there is no specific antiviral
Show answer
Correct answer: E
There is no specific antiviral for tick-borne encephalitis, so management is supportive, with neurological intensive care for severe encephalitis and attention to respiratory function where cervical-cord or bulbar involvement threatens breathing.
Acyclovir treats herpes simplex encephalitis and doxycycline treats the tick-borne bacterium of Lyme disease, neither of which is tick-borne encephalitis virus.
- MCQ
When confirming acute Zika virus infection by reverse-transcriptase PCR, testing urine as well as blood is useful because:
- A. Urine is easier to store than blood
- B. Viral RNA persists longer in urine than in serum
- C. Blood PCR is not validated for Zika
- D. Urine contains more neutralising antibody
- E. Urine avoids all flavivirus cross-reactivity
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Zika viral RNA remains detectable in urine for longer than in serum, widening the diagnostic window for reverse-transcriptase PCR.
Blood PCR is validated, cross-reactivity is a serology problem rather than a PCR one, and urine does not carry more antibody.
- MCQ
When investigating an outbreak with no easily countable exposed population, the preferred analytic design and its measure are:
- A. Cohort study, relative risk
- B. Cross-sectional study, prevalence
- C. Case-control study, odds ratio
- D. Randomised trial, hazard ratio
- E. Ecological study, correlation
Show answer
Correct answer: C
A case-control study compares the odds of exposure in cases and controls, giving an odds ratio, and is used when there is no enumerable denominator. A cohort study, yielding a relative risk, suits a defined countable population such as everyone at a single event.
- MCQ
Where was West Nile virus first isolated?
- A. New York, United States
- B. The Nile Delta, Egypt
- C. Queensland, Australia
- D. Kunjin, India
- E. The West Nile district, Uganda
Show answer
Correct answer: E
West Nile virus was first isolated in 1937 from a febrile woman in the West Nile district of Uganda. It emerged in New York in 1999, its first appearance in the Western Hemisphere, and spread across North America within a decade.
The other locations are associated with later spread or with related viruses rather than the original isolation.
- MCQ
Which animal is the key amplifying host in the Japanese encephalitis transmission cycle?
- A. Wild non-human primates
- B. Horses
- C. Pigs
- D. Rodents
- E. Bats
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Pigs are the key amplifying host, developing a high viraemia and living close to people in rural Asia, while ardeid wading birds are natural maintenance hosts; humans and horses are dead-end hosts.
Primates, rodents and bats are not the amplifying hosts for Japanese encephalitis.
- MCQ
Which animals are the principal reservoir maintaining tick-borne encephalitis virus in nature?
- A. Pigs
- B. Wild birds
- C. Non-human primates
- D. Small rodents
- E. Cattle
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Small rodents are the principal reservoir, sustaining the cycle with Ixodes ticks, including through co-feeding between infected and uninfected ticks on the same host. Large mammals maintain the tick population but rarely transmit the virus.
Pigs, birds and primates are reservoirs for other flaviviruses, not for tick-borne encephalitis.
- MCQ
Which arboviral encephalitis carries the highest case-fatality in the Americas?
- A. Western equine encephalitis
- B. Venezuelan equine encephalitis
- C. West Nile encephalitis
- D. St Louis encephalitis
- E. Eastern equine encephalitis
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Eastern equine encephalitis has the highest case-fatality, of the order of 30% or more, with frequent severe neurological sequelae in survivors, especially children.
The others are considerably less lethal.
- MCQ
Which arbovirus carries the greatest risk of nosocomial transmission and requires strict viral haemorrhagic fever isolation?
- A. Dengue virus
- B. West Nile virus
- C. Sindbis virus
- D. Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever virus
- E. Chikungunya virus
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever virus spreads from patient to staff through blood and body fluids and has caused documented nosocomial outbreaks, so suspected cases need barrier nursing and viral haemorrhagic fever isolation.
The mosquito-borne dengue, West Nile, Sindbis and chikungunya viruses do not spread from person to person.
- MCQ
Which arbovirus characteristically causes a poliomyelitis-like acute flaccid paralysis through anterior horn cell injury?
- A. Dengue virus
- B. Chikungunya virus
- C. West Nile virus
- D. Rift Valley fever virus
- E. Sindbis virus
Show answer
Correct answer: C
West Nile neuroinvasive disease can injure the anterior horn cells, producing an asymmetric acute flaccid paralysis that resembles poliomyelitis.
Dengue and Rift Valley fever are chiefly febrile or haemorrhagic; chikungunya and Sindbis are arthritogenic.
- MCQ
Which arbovirus group has a segmented, negative-sense RNA genome and assembles at the Golgi?
- A. Flaviviridae
- B. Togaviridae
- C. Bunyavirales
- D. Reoviridae
- E. Rhabdoviridae
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The Bunyavirales carry a three-segment negative-sense RNA genome and bud at the Golgi, unlike the flaviviruses (endoplasmic reticulum) and alphaviruses (plasma membrane).
Flaviviridae and Togaviridae have non-segmented positive-sense genomes; Reoviridae are segmented but double-stranded; Rhabdoviridae are non-segmented negative-sense.
- MCQ
Which arbovirus is prevented by a live-attenuated vaccine that may be required for travel under the International Health Regulations?
- A. Dengue virus
- B. Yellow fever virus
- C. West Nile virus
- D. Zika virus
- E. Chikungunya virus
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The live-attenuated 17D yellow fever vaccine is highly effective and is required under the International Health Regulations for travel to and from endemic countries.
No licensed vaccine exists for West Nile or Zika; dengue and chikungunya vaccines exist but are not International Health Regulations travel requirements.
- MCQ
Which birds act as natural maintenance hosts for Japanese encephalitis virus?
- A. Domestic poultry
- B. Passerine songbirds
- C. Migratory waterfowl only
- D. Ardeid wading birds such as herons and egrets
- E. Birds play no part in the cycle
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Ardeid wading birds, such as herons and egrets, are the natural maintenance hosts, with pigs as the amplifying host that drives human exposure.
Poultry, songbirds and waterfowl are not the recognised maintenance hosts, and birds are integral to the cycle.
- MCQ
Which chikungunya nonstructural protein is the RNA-dependent RNA polymerase?
- A. nsP4
- B. nsP1
- C. nsP2
- D. nsP3
- E. The capsid protein
Show answer
Correct answer: A
nsP4 is the RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
nsP1 caps the RNA and anchors the replication complex, nsP2 is the protease and helicase, nsP3 is a virulence and host-range determinant, and capsid is a structural protein.
- MCQ
Which equine encephalitis virus is a natural recombinant?
- A. Eastern equine encephalitis virus
- B. Western equine encephalitis virus
- C. Venezuelan equine encephalitis virus
- D. Madariaga virus
- E. None of them is a recombinant
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Western equine encephalitis virus arose by recombination, its genome descended from an Eastern-equine-encephalitis-like ancestor with the structural genes of a Sindbis-like virus.
The others are not recombinants.
- MCQ
Which feature distinguishes the RVFV genome from the strictly negative-sense nairoviruses?
- A. It is a DNA genome
- B. Its S segment is ambisense
- C. It is a single non-segmented molecule
- D. It is entirely positive-sense
- E. It is a circular genome
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The RVFV small (S) segment is ambisense, encoding the nucleocapsid protein in one orientation and the non-structural NSs from the opposite-sense strand.
The genome is otherwise negative-sense, tripartite RNA, not DNA, positive-sense, circular or unsegmented.
- MCQ
Which feature distinguishes Zika virus from most other medically important arboviruses?
- A. It is transmitted only by ticks
- B. It cannot infect humans
- C. It is sexually transmitted and persists in the testis
- D. It causes a haemorrhagic fever with hepatic necrosis
- E. It is prevented by a live-attenuated vaccine
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Zika virus is sexually transmitted and persists in immune-privileged sites, notably the testis, for weeks to months, prolonging the window of sexual transmissibility; it is also transmitted vertically and by transfusion.
It is mosquito-borne rather than tick-borne, readily infects humans, does not cause a hepatic haemorrhagic fever, and has no licensed vaccine.
- MCQ
Which hantavirus causes haemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome yet has a worldwide distribution?
- A. Sin Nombre virus
- B. Puumala virus
- C. Hantaan virus
- D. Seoul virus
- E. Andes virus
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Seoul virus is distributed worldwide because its reservoir, the brown rat, has followed shipping to every continent, making it the one HFRS agent found far beyond the Old World.
Hantaan and Puumala are regional Old World viruses, Sin Nombre and Andes are New World cardiopulmonary agents.
- MCQ
Which hantavirus is the only one documented to transmit from person to person?
- A. Hantaan virus
- B. Sin Nombre virus
- C. Puumala virus
- D. Seoul virus
- E. Andes virus
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Andes virus is the only hantavirus with documented person-to-person transmission, which is why a suspected case needs isolation and contact tracing, as in the 2026 cruise-ship outbreak.
Every other hantavirus is acquired solely from rodent excreta, with humans a dead-end host.
- MCQ
Which host response failure is most associated with a fatal RVF outcome?
- A. An excessive antibody response
- B. A strong cytotoxic T-cell response early on
- C. High complement activation
- D. A failed early type I interferon response
- E. Marked eosinophilia
Show answer
Correct answer: D
A failure to mount an early type I interferon response is linked to severe and fatal disease, and those who die often fail to make RVFV-specific antibody.
A brisk innate response followed by neutralising antibody is the correlate of protection.
- MCQ
Which is a contraindication to the live-attenuated 17D yellow fever vaccine?
- A. Controlled hypertension
- B. Previous dengue infection
- C. Splenectomy
- D. Stable ischaemic heart disease
- E. Severe egg allergy
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The vaccine is produced in embryonated chicken eggs, so severe egg allergy is a contraindication. Other contraindications are significant immunosuppression, thymus disorders and infancy under six months.
Controlled hypertension, prior dengue, splenectomy and stable ischaemic heart disease are not contraindications to 17D.
- MCQ
Which is a correct principle of dengue management?
- A. Routine platelet transfusion for a low count
- B. Careful fluid balance with avoidance of NSAIDs
- C. Aspirin for fever
- D. High-dose corticosteroids
- E. Empirical antiviral therapy
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Meticulous fluid balance through the critical phase, with avoidance of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, is the core of management; paracetamol is preferred for fever.
Platelets are transfused for bleeding rather than a number alone, aspirin worsens bleeding, corticosteroids do not help, and there is no specific antiviral.
- MCQ
Which is the single strongest risk factor for developing neuroinvasive West Nile disease after infection?
- A. Female sex
- B. Recent yellow fever vaccination
- C. Prior dengue infection
- D. Blood group O
- E. Advancing age
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Advancing age is the dominant risk factor, with neuroinvasive disease many times commoner in older adults; immunosuppression, especially in organ-transplant recipients, also raises the risk. Susceptibility to infection is similar across ages, so age drives severity rather than acquisition.
The remaining options are not established risk factors for neuroinvasion.
- MCQ
Which is true of the discovery of the equine encephalitis viruses?
- A. Western equine encephalitis virus was the first alphavirus cultured, in 1930
- B. They were first isolated from wild migratory birds trapped across Africa
- C. All three were first discovered after the year 2000
- D. They were first recovered from human cerebrospinal fluid samples
- E. Eastern equine encephalitis virus was fully characterised before the year 1900
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Western equine encephalitis virus, isolated from horse brains in California in 1930, was the first alphavirus ever grown in culture.
The three viruses were recovered from encephalitic horses in the Americas during the 1930s, not from African birds, not after 2000, and not before 1900.
- MCQ
Which is true of Western equine encephalitis?
- A. It remains the commonest arboviral encephalitis across the Americas
- B. It is transmitted mainly by Culiseta melanura
- C. Human disease has all but disappeared in North America
- D. It occurs only on the African continent
- E. It is spread by the bite of an infected tick
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Human Western equine encephalitis has all but vanished, with no North American case for many years, for reasons that appear ecological rather than a loss of virulence.
Its vector is Culex tarsalis, not Culiseta melanura; it is a New World, mosquito-borne virus.
- MCQ
Which mechanism lets Aedes mosquitoes maintain Rift Valley fever virus through dry periods with no vertebrate host?
- A. Transovarial transmission
- B. Mechanical transmission
- C. Antigenic shift
- D. Bridge vectoring
- E. Cap-snatching
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Transovarial transmission passes the virus from an infected female mosquito to her eggs, so drought-resistant eggs can seed the next outbreak when the rains return.
Mechanical transmission and bridge vectoring move virus between hosts, not into eggs; antigenic shift and cap-snatching are unrelated molecular processes.
- MCQ
Which molecule is a key entry receptor for Venezuelan equine encephalitis virus?
- A. Heparan sulfate acting on its own
- B. The neuronal acetylcholine receptor
- C. MXRA8
- D. LDLRAD3
- E. The transferrin receptor
Show answer
Correct answer: D
LDLRAD3, a low-density lipoprotein receptor-related protein, is a key entry receptor for Venezuelan equine encephalitis virus.
MXRA8 serves the arthritogenic Old World alphaviruses, and the others are not its receptor.
- MCQ
Which mosquitoes drive urban human-to-human chikungunya transmission?
- A. Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus
- B. Anopheles gambiae and Anopheles funestus
- C. Culex tarsalis and Culiseta melanura
- D. Culex quinquefasciatus and Culex univittatus
- E. Psorophora and Ochlerotatus species
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus sustain the urban cycle, and human viraemia is high enough to infect them, so no animal reservoir is needed for an epidemic.
Anopheles transmit malaria, Culex and Culiseta transmit encephalitic arboviruses, and Psorophora are equine-encephalitis vectors.
- MCQ
Which neuroimaging finding is characteristic of Japanese encephalitis?
- A. Temporal lobe haemorrhagic necrosis
- B. Bilateral thalamic lesions
- C. Periventricular calcification
- D. Cerebellar atrophy
- E. A normal scan in all cases
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Bilateral thalamic lesions are characteristic of Japanese encephalitis on CT or MRI, in keeping with its deep grey-matter tropism.
Temporal-lobe necrosis suggests herpes simplex encephalitis, and the other patterns are not typical of Japanese encephalitis.
- MCQ
Which of these is a WHO dengue "warning sign" of progression to severe disease?
- A. Persistent vomiting and abdominal pain
- B. Fever alone
- C. Mild headache
- D. A single loose stool
- E. Myalgia
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Persistent vomiting and abdominal pain are recognised warning signs, alongside mucosal bleeding, lethargy, fluid accumulation and a rising haematocrit with falling platelets.
Fever, headache and myalgia are features of uncomplicated dengue, and an isolated loose stool is not a warning sign.
- MCQ
Which Old World hantavirus causes the mildest form of HFRS, known as nephropathia epidemica?
- A. Hantaan virus
- B. Dobrava-Belgrade virus
- C. Puumala virus
- D. Seoul virus
- E. Andes virus
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Puumala virus causes the mild HFRS historically called nephropathia epidemica, and accounts for most of the European caseload.
Hantaan and Dobrava-Belgrade cause severe HFRS, Seoul a moderate form, and Andes is a New World cardiopulmonary agent.
- MCQ
Which organisation is NOT one of the four partners in the One Health Quadripartite?
- A. World Health Organization (WHO)
- B. Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
- C. World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH)
- D. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
- E. World Trade Organization (WTO)
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The Quadripartite comprises the WHO, FAO, WOAH and UNEP, which together produced the One Health Joint Plan of Action. The World Trade Organization is not part of it.
- MCQ
Which protein is absent from the CCHFV virion?
- A. Matrix protein
- B. Nucleocapsid protein
- C. Gn glycoprotein
- D. Gc glycoprotein
- E. L polymerase
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Like other bunyavirals, CCHFV has no matrix protein. Inside the envelope the three genome segments exist as ribonucleoproteins, each coated by nucleocapsid protein and bound to the L polymerase.
Gn and Gc form the surface spikes, so all four of the other proteins are present.
- MCQ
Which sign describes the relative bradycardia despite a high fever seen in yellow fever?
- A. Romaña's sign
- B. Koplik spots
- C. Forchheimer spots
- D. Pastia's lines
- E. Faget's sign
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Faget’s sign is a pulse that is slow relative to the height of the fever, characteristic of the viraemic period of yellow fever (and also of typhoid).
Romaña’s sign is the periorbital oedema of acute Chagas disease, Koplik spots are pathognomonic of measles, Forchheimer spots occur in rubella and scarlet fever, and Pastia’s lines are seen in scarlet fever.
- MCQ
Which single feature is essential for a virus to be classified as an arbovirus?
- A. Replication within the arthropod vector
- B. A double-stranded DNA genome
- C. Spread by the faecal-oral route
- D. A human reservoir host
- E. Carriage on the vector's mouthparts
Show answer
Correct answer: A
An arbovirus must replicate inside its arthropod vector, completing the extrinsic incubation period from gut to salivary glands. This biological transmission is the defining criterion of the group.
Carriage on the mouthparts is mechanical transmission, which excludes a virus. A DNA genome, faecal-oral spread and a human reservoir are irrelevant to the definition; most arboviruses have RNA genomes and non-human reservoirs.
- MCQ
Which statement about chikungunya vaccines is correct?
- A. No vaccine has ever been licensed
- B. Only inactivated whole-virus vaccines exist
- C. Vaccination removes any further need for mosquito vector control
- D. The vaccines are given to infants under one year
- E. Ixchiq, live-attenuated, was the first licensed vaccine
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Ixchiq, approved in late 2023, was the world’s first licensed chikungunya vaccine, a live-attenuated single-dose product; a virus-like particle vaccine, Vimkunya, followed.
Vaccines are not limited to inactivated designs, do not remove the need for bite avoidance and vector control, and are for adults and adolescents rather than young infants.
- MCQ
Which statement about chikungunya viraemia and immunity is correct?
- A. Viraemia is low and unrelated to severity
- B. Recovery depends mainly on cytotoxic T cell killing of neurons
- C. Immunity is brief, so reinfection is common
- D. Antibody plays no protective role
- E. High viraemia tracks severity, and antibody drives recovery
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Viraemia is high, correlates with disease severity, and neutralising antibody to E2 mediates recovery and confers durable, probably lifelong, immunity.
Viraemia is neither low nor irrelevant, immunity is durable rather than brief, and antibody rather than cytotoxic T cells alone is the principal protective arm.
- MCQ
Which statement about equine encephalitis virus pathogenesis is correct?
- A. The viruses do not infect central-nervous-system neurons
- B. Disease severity bears no relation to the age of the host
- C. Western virus is by far the most neurovirulent of the three
- D. They reach the brain only by travelling slowly along the peripheral nerves
- E. All three are neurotropic, and Eastern virus is the most neurovirulent
Show answer
Correct answer: E
All three viruses are neurotropic, invading the brain and infecting neurons, and Eastern equine encephalitis virus is the most neurovirulent.
Susceptibility to fatal disease is highest at the extremes of age, and neuroinvasion can occur by several routes, not only along nerves.
- MCQ
Which statement about hantavirus management is correct?
- A. Corticosteroids clearly improve survival
- B. HFRS never requires dialysis
- C. Ribavirin cures the cardiopulmonary syndrome
- D. Severe cardiopulmonary syndrome may need ECMO, and corticosteroids are unproven
- E. Antibiotics are curative
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Severe cardiopulmonary syndrome may require extracorporeal membrane oxygenation, and corticosteroids have not been shown to help; care is otherwise supportive.
HFRS often needs dialysis, ribavirin does not cure cardiopulmonary disease, and antibiotics treat a viral illness only if bacterial co-infection arises.
- MCQ
Which statement about hantavirus taxonomy is correct?
- A. "Hantavirus" is purely an ecological label, like "arbovirus"
- B. The human pathogens belong to the genus Orthohantavirus
- C. All hantaviruses infect only rodents
- D. Hantaviruses are a genus within the Flaviviridae
- E. Hantaviruses have a DNA genome
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The human-pathogenic hantaviruses belong to the genus Orthohantavirus in the family Hantaviridae, a true taxonomic grouping.
Unlike “arbovirus”, the name reflects shared ancestry, not ecology; the wider family also infects shrews, moles, bats and lower vertebrates; and the genome is segmented negative-sense RNA, not DNA, in the order Bunyavirales rather than the Flaviviridae.
- MCQ
Which statement about Japanese encephalitis vaccination is correct?
- A. No vaccine exists
- B. Only a mouse-brain vaccine is available
- C. Vaccines protect against a single genotype only
- D. Effective inactivated and live-attenuated vaccines underpin routine childhood immunisation in endemic Asia
- E. Vaccination is contraindicated in children
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Effective inactivated (for example the Vero-cell IXIARO) and live-attenuated (SA14-14-2) vaccines drive routine childhood immunisation across endemic Asia and are recommended for at-risk travellers; because the virus is a single serotype, they protect across genotypes.
The mouse-brain vaccine is largely phased out, vaccines are not genotype-restricted, and children are the main target group.
- MCQ
Which statement about preventing equine encephalitis is correct?
- A. A safe licensed human vaccine is in widespread routine clinical use worldwide
- B. Venezuelan virus poses no laboratory-aerosol hazard at all
- C. Only antiviral prophylaxis is effective against these viruses
- D. No licensed human vaccine exists; Venezuelan virus is an aerosol biothreat
- E. Vaccinating horses plays no part in outbreak control
Show answer
Correct answer: D
There is no licensed human vaccine; veterinary vaccines protect horses, and Venezuelan equine encephalitis virus is highly infectious by aerosol and a recognised biothreat.
Human vaccines remain investigational, the laboratory-aerosol hazard is real, and equine vaccination is central to outbreak control.
- MCQ
Which statement about Rift Valley fever treatment is correct?
- A. Care is supportive and ribavirin is not recommended
- B. Ribavirin reliably cures the infection if given early
- C. A licensed oral antiviral is available
- D. Aciclovir is the first-line agent
- E. Corticosteroids are the standard therapy
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Treatment is supportive; unlike for Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever, ribavirin is not recommended for RVF, having been linked to late-onset encephalitis in animal studies, and corticosteroids are not recommended either.
No antiviral is approved for the disease.
- MCQ
Which statement about the chikungunya envelope glycoproteins is correct?
- A. E1 attaches to the host receptor and elicits antibody
- B. E2 inserts the fusion peptide at low pH
- C. E3 drives fusion of the two membranes
- D. E2 attaches and elicits most neutralising antibody
- E. Capsid protein forms the surface envelope spikes
Show answer
Correct answer: D
E2 is the attachment protein and the dominant target of neutralising antibody, while E1 carries the fusion peptide.
E3 chaperones the E2 precursor and is cleaved by furin; the capsid forms the internal nucleocapsid, not the surface spikes.
- MCQ
Which statement about the global distribution of yellow fever is correct?
- A. It is endemic across South-East Asia
- B. Most cases occur in South America
- C. Asia has no established endemic transmission
- D. It has been eradicated from Africa
- E. It occurs only in temperate climates
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Despite abundant Aedes aegypti, yellow fever has never established endemic transmission in Asia, a puzzle attributed to dengue cross-protection, vector competence and historical trade patterns; about 90% of the burden falls on Africa.
South America carries the minority of cases, the virus is not eradicated from Africa, and it is a tropical rather than temperate disease.
- MCQ
Which statement about the hantavirus virion and its assembly is correct?
- A. It lacks a matrix protein and buds at the Golgi
- B. It has a prominent matrix protein
- C. It assembles at the plasma membrane
- D. It is non-enveloped
- E. It integrates into host DNA
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Hantaviruses lack a matrix protein and assemble by budding at the Golgi, a shared bunyavirus feature.
They are enveloped, do not assemble at the plasma membrane, and do not integrate into host DNA.
- MCQ
Which statement about the Sindbis virion and genome is correct?
- A. A non-enveloped particle with a DNA genome
- B. A segmented negative-sense RNA genome
- C. An enveloped particle with a positive-sense RNA genome
- D. A double-stranded RNA genome in a naked capsid
- E. E1 mediates receptor attachment while E2 drives membrane fusion
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Sindbis is an enveloped, roughly 70 nm particle with a single positive-sense RNA genome of about 11.7 kb, expressed as nonstructural and structural protein sets.
It is not non-enveloped, DNA, segmented or double-stranded, and it is E2 that attaches while E1 fuses.
- MCQ
Which statement about tick-borne encephalitis vaccines is correct?
- A. Only a live-attenuated vaccine exists
- B. There is no effective vaccine
- C. Inactivated European-subtype vaccines cross-protect against all three subtypes
- D. The vaccine protects only against the European subtype
- E. A single dose gives lifelong protection
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Effective inactivated whole-virus vaccines based on the European subtype cross-protect against all three subtypes, with efficacy above 95%; they are given as a multi-dose primary series with periodic boosters.
There is no single-dose lifelong tick-borne encephalitis vaccine, and protection is not restricted to the European subtype.
- MCQ
Which statement about West Nile virus vaccination is correct?
- A. A live-attenuated human vaccine is on the routine schedule
- B. No human vaccine is licensed, but equine vaccines exist
- C. A single-dose human vaccine gives lifelong protection
- D. An inactivated human vaccine is required for travel
- E. Vaccination is contraindicated in horses
Show answer
Correct answer: B
There is no licensed human West Nile vaccine, though effective inactivated equine vaccines are widely used. Human candidates have reached early-phase trials, but the sporadic, scattered nature of human disease has made large efficacy trials impractical.
The other statements describe vaccines that do not exist for human West Nile virus.
- MCQ
Which subtype of tick-borne encephalitis virus carries the highest case-fatality?
- A. The European (Western) subtype
- B. The Far-Eastern subtype
- C. The Siberian subtype
- D. All subtypes carry an identical case-fatality
- E. The Kunjin subtype
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The Far-Eastern subtype is the most severe, with a case-fatality of roughly 20% to 40%, compared with about 6% to 8% for the Siberian and 0.5% to 2% for the European subtype.
Kunjin is a subtype of West Nile virus, not of tick-borne encephalitis virus.
- MCQ
Which surveillance approach generally yields the most complete and timely data?
- A. Active surveillance, where officials solicit reports
- B. Passive surveillance, relying on spontaneous reports
- C. Anonymous media monitoring
- D. An annual population census
- E. Voluntary clinician interest
Show answer
Correct answer: A
In active surveillance health officials take the initiative to obtain reports, giving high completeness and timeliness, but it is resource-intensive and reserved for priority diseases. Passive surveillance is cheaper and wider but under-reports.
- MCQ
Which vertebrates are the amplifying hosts that maintain West Nile virus in nature?
- A. Horses
- B. Pigs
- C. Birds
- D. Cattle
- E. Humans
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Wild birds develop a prolonged, high-titre viraemia and are the amplifying hosts that sustain the bird-mosquito cycle. Horses and humans are dead-end hosts that do not amplify the virus.
Pigs amplify Japanese encephalitis, not West Nile virus, and cattle are not significant amplifying hosts.
- MCQ
Which virus belongs to the same tick-borne encephalitis serocomplex as tick-borne encephalitis virus?
- A. Japanese encephalitis virus
- B. West Nile virus
- C. Dengue virus
- D. Yellow fever virus
- E. Powassan virus
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Powassan virus is a member of the tick-borne encephalitis serocomplex, which also contains Kyasanur Forest disease, Omsk haemorrhagic fever and louping ill viruses.
Japanese encephalitis and West Nile viruses form the mosquito-borne Japanese encephalitis serocomplex, and dengue and yellow fever are separate groups.
- MCQ
Which virus most closely mimics chikungunya clinically and is its nearest relative in the Semliki Forest complex?
- A. Dengue virus
- B. Zika virus
- C. O'nyong-nyong virus
- D. Ross River virus
- E. Semliki Forest virus
Show answer
Correct answer: C
O’nyong-nyong virus causes a near-identical fever, arthralgia and rash syndrome and is chikungunya’s closest relative, separated serologically and by its prominent cervical lymphadenopathy.
Dengue and Zika share the setting but favour myalgia; Ross River is a more distant arthritogenic alphavirus; West Nile is an encephalitic flavivirus.
- MCQ
Which West Nile virus lineage is the endemic African lineage responsible for most southern African disease?
- A. Lineage 2
- B. Lineage 1a
- C. Lineage 1b (Kunjin)
- D. Lineage 3
- E. Lineage 5
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Lineage 2 is the endemic African lineage, first characterised on the continent, and drives South African equine and human disease; it has more recently seeded large European outbreaks.
Lineage 1a caused the 1999 New York outbreak and is the most widespread, lineage 1b is the milder Australian Kunjin virus, and the minor lineages are not major causes of southern African disease.
- MCQ
Why are humans considered dead-end hosts for Japanese encephalitis virus?
- A. They are resistant to infection
- B. They are rarely bitten by Culex mosquitoes
- C. They transmit only to pigs
- D. They are infected only in the laboratory
- E. They do not develop enough viraemia to infect feeding mosquitoes
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Human viraemia is too low to infect feeding mosquitoes, so people cannot sustain the cycle, which is maintained by pigs and wading birds; there is no human-to-human spread.
Humans are fully susceptible and are bitten in the field, so the other options are incorrect.
- MCQ
Why do RNA viruses generally evolve far faster than DNA viruses?
- A. They replicate more slowly
- B. They have larger genomes
- C. Their polymerase lacks proofreading
- D. They cannot recombine
- E. They integrate into host DNA
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The RNA-dependent RNA polymerase has no proofreading or repair function, so its errors are not corrected, giving about one mutation per genome per replication. DNA viruses use higher-fidelity polymerases and so evolve far more slowly.
- MCQ
Why do survivors of yellow fever hepatitis recover without progressing to cirrhosis?
- A. The reticulin framework of the liver is preserved
- B. Hepatocytes are unable to regenerate
- C. Dense bridging fibrosis replaces lost cells
- D. The portal tracts are destroyed
- E. Bile ductules proliferate extensively
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Necrosis is midzonal and the reticulin framework is preserved, so survivors regenerate normal architecture and heal without cirrhosis. Transaminases can remain raised for weeks, but there is no postnecrotic scarring.
The remaining options describe fibrotic or destructive processes that do not occur in yellow fever hepatitis.
- MCQ
Why does the diversity of an RNA-virus population make single-drug therapy prone to failure?
- A. Resistant variants already exist before the drug is given
- B. The drug raises the mutation rate
- C. The virus stops replicating under pressure
- D. The population is genetically uniform
- E. Recombination is blocked by the drug
Show answer
Correct answer: A
The mutant cloud already contains rare drug-resistant variants before the drug is ever encountered, so a single agent simply selects them, often within days. Durable regimens therefore combine agents with independent resistance pathways.
- MCQ
Why is paracetamol preferred over non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs early in suspected chikungunya?
- A. The drugs interact with the chikungunya antiviral
- B. Anti-inflammatory drugs worsen the arthralgia
- C. Paracetamol clears the virus faster
- D. Dengue has not yet been excluded
- E. Anti-inflammatory drugs are barred in all arboviruses
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Until dengue is excluded, paracetamol is preferred because non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and aspirin carry a bleeding risk in dengue.
There is no chikungunya antiviral to interact with, these drugs do not worsen arthralgia, none clears the virus, and they become the mainstay for chikungunya arthralgia once dengue is excluded.
- MCQ
Within the genus Alphavirus, chikungunya virus belongs to which group?
- A. New World encephalitic alphaviruses
- B. Old World arthritogenic alphaviruses
- C. Tick-borne flaviviruses
- D. Mosquito-borne encephalitic flaviviruses
- E. Phleboviruses
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Chikungunya is an Old World arthritogenic alphavirus, causing fever, rash and polyarthritis.
The New World alphaviruses (eastern, western and Venezuelan equine encephalitis) are classically encephalitic, and the flaviviruses and phleboviruses are separate genera.
- MCQ
Yellow fever virus is the prototype (type) species of which genus?
- A. Orthoflavivirus
- B. Alphavirus
- C. Orthonairovirus
- D. Phlebovirus
- E. Orthohantavirus
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Yellow fever virus is the type species of the genus Orthoflavivirus (family Flaviviridae), a small enveloped positive-sense single-stranded RNA virus; the family name derives from flavus, Latin for yellow.
Alphavirus holds chikungunya, Orthonairovirus holds Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever virus, Phlebovirus holds Rift Valley fever virus, and Orthohantavirus holds the hantaviruses.
- MCQ
Zika virus was first isolated in 1947 from:
- A. A sentinel rhesus monkey in the Zika Forest of Uganda
- B. A febrile child in Brazil
- C. Aedes mosquitoes in Yap Island
- D. A pig in Malaysia
- E. A traveller returning from French Polynesia
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Zika virus was isolated in 1947 from a sentinel rhesus monkey in the Zika Forest of Uganda, and soon after from Aedes mosquitoes at the same site.
Yap Island (2007) and French Polynesia (2013 to 2014) were later outbreaks, and the Americas epidemic began in 2015; none was the site of first isolation.
Clinical scenarioA 34-year-old returns from forestry work in the Brazilian Amazon. He had five days of fever, headache and myalgia that briefly improved, but now presents with jaundice, bleeding gums and reduced urine output. He is unvaccinated against yellow fever. a) What is the most likely diagnosis and which phase of illness is he in? [2] b) Which two laboratory tests are appropriate to confirm the diagnosis at this stage? [2] c) Outline the key principles of management. [3] d) State one public-health action. [1]
Model answer
a. Severe yellow fever in the period of intoxication. The biphasic pattern (febrile illness, brief remission, then jaundice, bleeding and renal impairment) in an unvaccinated traveller from an endemic forest is characteristic.
b. By this stage viraemia is waning, so serology (IgM-capture ELISA) is the mainstay, supported by reverse-transcriptase PCR or NS1 antigen if he is still within the viraemic window; plaque-reduction neutralisation resolves flavivirus cross-reactivity. Liver biopsy is contraindicated.
c. Supportive intensive care: fluid and electrolyte management, organ support including renal replacement for acute kidney injury, correction of coagulopathy with blood products, and avoidance of salicylates. There is no licensed antiviral.
d. Notify the case as a notifiable medical condition and prevent mosquito access to the viraemic patient to block onward transmission.
Clinical scenarioA 72-year-old man presents in late summer with fever, confusion and asymmetric limb weakness. Cerebrospinal fluid shows a lymphocytic pleocytosis with raised protein. He keeps horses, some of which have recently shown neurological signs. a) What is the most likely diagnosis? [1] b) Why is he at particular risk of severe disease? [1] c) Which laboratory tests would you request and on which specimens? [3] d) Outline your management. [2]
Model answer
a. West Nile neuroinvasive disease (encephalitis with acute flaccid paralysis), supported by the season, the lymphocytic cerebrospinal fluid and the sick sentinel horses.
b. Advancing age is the dominant risk factor for neuroinvasive disease, with the risk in the elderly many times that of young adults.
c. IgM-capture ELISA on serum and cerebrospinal fluid (IgM in cerebrospinal fluid indicates central nervous system infection), with reverse-transcriptase PCR on cerebrospinal fluid or early serum; paired sera help address IgM persistence and flavivirus cross-reactivity, and samples are screened for other arboviruses.
d. Supportive care, with close attention to bulbar and respiratory function and intensive care with ventilation if respiratory failure develops; no antiviral is of proven benefit.
Clinical scenarioA hiker returns from a summer walking holiday in rural Austria. A week after a febrile, flu-like illness that settled, he develops headache, neck stiffness and drowsiness. He recalls a tick bite and had also drunk unpasteurised goat's milk at a farm. a) What is the most likely diagnosis and what is the pattern of illness called? [2] b) Besides the tick bite, what other exposure is relevant and why? [2] c) How would you confirm the diagnosis? [2] d) What single measure could have prevented it? [1]
Model answer
a. Tick-borne encephalitis in its biphasic form: a grippe-like first phase, a remission, then a neurological second phase of meningitis or meningoencephalitis, typical of the European subtype.
b. The unpasteurised goat’s milk, because tick-borne encephalitis virus can be acquired by the alimentary route from the milk of infected goats, sheep or cattle, an additional exposure to the tick bite.
c. Serology, with IgM-capture ELISA on serum and cerebrospinal fluid and a rising titre in paired sera; virus is rarely isolated once neurological disease has begun.
d. Tick-borne encephalitis vaccination before travel (with tick-bite avoidance and avoiding unpasteurised dairy as supporting measures).
Clinical scenarioA woman who is 10 weeks pregnant returns from a holiday in the Caribbean with a few days of low-grade fever, a maculopapular rash, joint pains and red eyes, now resolved. a) What is the most likely arboviral diagnosis? [1] b) Which laboratory tests would you use to confirm it and what interpretive pitfall must you keep in mind? [3] c) What is the principal fetal concern and how is the pregnancy monitored? [2] d) What advice would you give her partner? [1]
Model answer
a. Zika virus infection. The mild febrile illness with rash, arthralgia and non-purulent conjunctivitis after travel to an endemic region is characteristic (dengue and chikungunya are the main differentials).
b. Reverse-transcriptase PCR on blood and urine (urine has a longer detection window), with serology if presentation is later; the key pitfall is strong flavivirus cross-reactivity, so a positive IgM needs confirmation by plaque-reduction neutralisation and interpretation is harder with prior flavivirus exposure.
c. The concern is congenital Zika syndrome, particularly microcephaly, greatest after first-trimester infection; monitoring is by serial fetal ultrasound, with amniotic-fluid testing where indicated and paediatric assessment of the neonate.
d. Because Zika persists in semen and is sexually transmitted, the partner should use condoms or abstain for the recommended period to avoid re-exposing her during the pregnancy.
SAQList four contraindications or cautions to the live-attenuated 17D yellow fever vaccine. [4]
Model answer
- Severe egg allergy, because the vaccine is grown in embryonated chicken eggs.
- Significant immunosuppression, including symptomatic HIV with a low CD4 count, and thymus disorders.
- Infancy under six months (and caution between six and nine months), given the risk of vaccine-associated neurotropic disease.
- Advanced age, a caution rather than an absolute bar, because vaccine-associated viscerotropic disease rises steeply in first-time recipients over about 60 years.
SAQList the three principal forms of West Nile neuroinvasive disease. [3]
Model answer
- Meningitis: an aseptic meningitis with a lymphocytic cerebrospinal-fluid pleocytosis.
- Encephalitis: altered consciousness ranging to coma, often with tremor, myoclonus and parkinsonian features.
- Acute flaccid paralysis: an asymmetric, poliomyelitis-like weakness from anterior horn cell destruction, which may occur without meningitis or encephalitis.
SAQList the three transmission cycles of yellow fever and name a characteristic vector for each. [6]
Model answer
- Sylvatic (jungle) cycle: between non-human primates and forest canopy mosquitoes, Haemagogus and Sabethes species in the Americas and Aedes africanus in Africa; humans infected incidentally.
- Intermediate (savannah) cycle: between monkeys and humans via tree-hole Aedes, for example Aedes furcifer and Aedes luteocephalus, the commonest source of African outbreaks.
- Urban cycle: human to human via Aedes aegypti, the domestic container-breeding mosquito responsible for explosive city epidemics.
SAQName the three subtypes of tick-borne encephalitis virus and rank them by severity. [3]
Model answer
- European (Western) subtype: the mildest, with a case-fatality of about 0.5% to 2%; transmitted by Ixodes ricinus.
- Siberian subtype: intermediate severity, case-fatality about 6% to 8%, and associated with chronic progressive disease.
- Far-Eastern subtype: the most severe, case-fatality about 20% to 40%, often monophasic with prominent paralysis.
SAQOutline two pitfalls of West Nile virus serology and how they are addressed. [4]
Model answer
- Persistent IgM: serum IgM can remain detectable for more than a year, so a positive result may reflect past rather than current infection; correlate with the clinical picture and, where possible, demonstrate seroconversion in paired sera.
- Flavivirus cross-reactivity: antibody cross-reacts with other flaviviruses and with yellow fever or Japanese encephalitis vaccination, so paired serology is essential and plaque-reduction neutralisation is used to confirm the specific virus. Specimens are also screened for other co-circulating arboviruses.
Exam-styleDiscuss the epidemiology and laboratory diagnosis of West Nile virus infection. [10]
Model answer
A complete answer covers the transmission ecology, the human burden and the tiered laboratory approach with its pitfalls.
Epidemiology
West Nile virus is the most widely distributed flavivirus, maintained in an enzootic cycle between Culex mosquitoes and birds, the birds acting as amplifying hosts through a prolonged high-titre viraemia. Humans and horses are dead-end hosts. Transmission peaks in late summer and early autumn. The virus can also spread by blood transfusion, organ transplantation, breast milk and in pregnancy. Most infection is silent: about a quarter of infections are symptomatic and roughly 1 in 150 develops neuroinvasive disease, the risk rising steeply with age. Lineage 1a caused the 1999 North American emergence, while lineage 2 is endemic in southern Africa.
Laboratory diagnosis
Diagnosis is anchored on serology: IgM-capture ELISA on serum and cerebrospinal fluid, with cerebrospinal-fluid IgM indicating central nervous system infection because IgM does not cross the blood-brain barrier. Two pitfalls must be managed: IgM can persist for over a year, and antibody cross-reacts across flaviviruses and with vaccination, so paired sera and plaque-reduction neutralisation are used to confirm. Reverse-transcriptase PCR and culture on serum or cerebrospinal fluid are useful only in the brief viraemic window (roughly the first six days) and a negative result does not exclude infection; PCR is most valuable in immunocompromised patients with prolonged viraemia and blunted antibody. Specimens are also screened for other co-circulating arboviruses given the overlapping presentations.
Exam-styleDiscuss the pathogenesis and clinical course of severe yellow fever. [10]
Model answer
A complete answer links the viscerotropic tropism of the virus to the triphasic clinical course and the mechanisms of organ failure.
Viral entry and dissemination
After a mosquito bite the virus replicates in local lymph nodes, seeds the reticuloendothelial system and produces a high-titre viraemia that carries it to the liver, kidney and other organs. Nonstructural proteins antagonise interferon induction and signalling, helping the virus reach the viraemia that precedes severe disease.
Hepatic and renal injury
The liver is the principal target. Necrosis is midzonal, sparing cells around the central vein and portal tracts, and hepatocytes die by apoptosis into eosinophilic Councilman bodies with minimal inflammation. Because the reticulin framework is preserved, survivors heal without cirrhosis. The kidney shows acute tubular necrosis, producing the heavy albuminuria that is a clinical hallmark.
Systemic mechanisms of severe disease
Direct cytopathic injury alone does not explain shock. A dysregulated innate response, a high circulating cytokine load, coagulopathy that may progress to disseminated intravascular coagulation, and increased vascular permeability combine to cause multi-organ failure.
Clinical course
After an incubation of about three to six days, illness runs a triphasic course: a viraemic period of infection (fever, myalgia, Faget’s sign), a brief remission, and in a minority a period of intoxication with jaundice, acute kidney injury and a haemorrhagic diathesis including the classic black vomit. Death is usually on the seventh to tenth day, and case-fatality among jaundiced cases is roughly 20% to 50%; management is supportive because no antiviral exists.